Psychiatry

The Mind's Malfunction and Repair: Psychiatry as Causal Detective Work

精神與行為 · 5 chapters · 214 past questions · key points in ~24 min

English edition. Practice questions are the original Taiwan board questions (in Chinese, with explanations).

01

The Two Ends of Life: The Child's Brain and the Aging Brain

~5 min · 35 past questions

The real trap in ASD is "sensory integration works on core symptoms" — it sounds the most reasonable, but no high-quality RCT backs it up.

Full text
Case

A third-grade boy cannot stop moving in the exam room — sliding off his chair onto the floor, then climbing onto his mother's lap. His mother says it is the same at school: his teacher complains that he cannot pay attention and blurts out in class. Across the waiting room sits a 78-year-old man; his wife says that over the past six months "he has become a different person" — once meticulous and considerate, he now screams at store clerks at the supermarket, insists he has not eaten moments after finishing a meal, and has started taking off his pants in public. One is a developing brain with every door thrown wide open; the other is a degenerating brain going dark room by room. The licensing exam loves to set these two extremes side by side on the same page.

To cut cleanly between child and geriatric psychiatry, keep one shared question in mind: which direction is this brain traveling? In a brain still developing upward, the problem is a circuit burning too bright (the excess dopamine of Tourette syndrome) or a threshold never cleared (the executive-function deficits of ADHD). In a brain traveling downward into decline, the problem is a circuit going dark (falling acetylcholine in Alzheimer disease, AD), or one region dimming earlier than the rest (the frontal lobe failing first in frontotemporal dementia, FTD). Once the direction is clear, half the question answers itself.

ADHD: Unless All Three Locks Open, None of Them Count

⟶ Mechanism

ADHD is the textbook neurodevelopmental disorder. Laid out as a causal chain: genetics + environmental insult → weakened DA/NE signaling in the prefrontal cortex → executive-function deficits (inhibition, attention, working memory) → cross-situational inattention and hyperactive-impulsive behavior → academic/social impairment. Because it is "developmental" rather than "reactive," the symptoms must be present since childhood, must appear across settings, and must cause functional impairment — three requirements that are really three locks cut from the same causal chain. Trap: assuming the DSM-IV cutoff of "before age 7" is still the current standard (it has been changed to before age 12); assuming symptoms confined to school alone qualify as ADHD (they do not — at least 2 settings are required).

⚠ Trap
✗🦦This child only started being unable to sit still in middle school, and it only happens at school — can the doctor still diagnose ADHD?
✓🐻‍❄️Neither lock is open. Remember the three locks: before age 12, two settings, functional impairment. Onset in middle school and symptoms confined to school both fail to qualify. The exam loves dangling "before age 7" and "only one setting" as distractors — cross them out the moment you see them.
★ Must-know
ADHD
  • Three locks: before age 12 + ≥2 settings + functional impairment; DSM-IV's "before age 7" is an outdated trap.
  • First line = central stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine); alternatives = atomoxetine, α2 agonists.
  • Stimulants can transiently affect growth/appetite/sleep; most patients with comorbid tics can still use them — not an absolute contraindication.
  • Traps: distractors built on "only at school," "only counts before age 7," and "comorbid tics absolutely forbid stimulants."
Full text · 1 table
RequirementCurrent DSM-5Outdated trap
Age of onsetSymptoms present before age 12Old DSM-IV "before age 7"
Number of settingsPresent in ≥2 settings (home, school, etc.)"Only one setting" is enough
Symptom clusterInattentive +/or hyperactive-impulsive—
FunctioningMust cause social/academic/occupational impairmentSymptoms without impairment

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First-line treatment is central stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine-class agents) — the logic is direct: if prefrontal dopamine is deficient, push it up. Non-stimulant alternatives are atomoxetine (an NRI) and α2 agonists (clonidine, guanfacine), reserved for patients who cannot tolerate stimulants, who have tics, or where abuse potential is a concern. Two frequently tested myths need debunking: stimulants do transiently suppress growth velocity, reduce appetite, and disturb sleep onset — that part is true — but "stimulants must worsen tics and are therefore absolutely contraindicated" is outdated thinking; most patients with comorbid tics can still use them safely.

Tourette Syndrome: Too Much Dopamine, So Antagonize It

⟶ Mechanism

Tourette syndrome follows the shortest possible causal chain: basal ganglia D2 receptor supersensitivity → overactive dopamine signaling in the striatum → recurrent motor/vocal tics → D2 antagonists suppress them, while a dopamine agonist only pours fuel on the fire. Because the mechanism is simply "too much," treatment can only move in one direction: block it. Combined motor-plus-vocal tics lasting more than 1 year with childhood onset make this the most common tic disorder in children, frequently comorbid with OCD and ADHD. Trap: assuming a dopamine agonist could "sharpen alertness" and incidentally suppress tics (it worsens them instead); assuming every case of Tourette resolves spontaneously with age (it only partially remits).

Full text · 1 table
Drug directionExamplesEffect on ticsWhy
D2 antagonistshaloperidol, pimozide, risperidone, aripiprazoleImproveBlock excess dopamine
α2 agonistsclonidine, guanfacineImprove (especially with comorbid ADHD)Fewer side effects, common first line
Dopamine agonist—WorsensFuel on the fire

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Heritability is high, with a higher concordance rate in monozygotic than dizygotic twins. Traditional question banks describe it as "autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance"; the modern view leans toward complex polygenic inheritance, but if the exam poses this question it typically still expects the old answer.

ASD: Which Treatments "Work" and Which Just "Sound Reasonable"

Full text

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is defined at its core by deficits in social-emotional reciprocity plus restricted, repetitive behaviors, and it is a neurodevelopmental disorder. What the licensing exam tests over and over is not the symptoms but the treatment — it loves slipping in options that "sound reasonable" but lack RCT evidence. Evidence-based options are ABA (applied behavior analysis), early intensive behavioral intervention, and speech therapy; CBT is also effective for comorbid anxiety/depression/OCD. Lacking high-quality RCT evidence is sensory integration therapy for the core symptoms of ASD — this is the most commonly missed trap, because the name sounds exactly right.

The Age Myth in Conduct Disorder

★ Must-know
Tourette / ASD / Conduct
  • Tourette = dopamine overactivity → D2 antagonists improve it, agonists worsen it; inheritance is often tested as "autosomal dominant, incomplete penetrance" (modern view: polygenic).
  • ASD: ABA/speech therapy/CBT are evidence-based; sensory integration has no evidence for core symptoms — the most common trap.
  • Conduct disorder can be diagnosed past age 18 but only if ASPD criteria are not met (the two are not diagnosed together); the diagnosis does not automatically change.
  • Traps: treating sensory integration as an effective core therapy; restricting conduct disorder to under-18s.
Full text

Conduct disorder is not a "pediatric-only" diagnosis. DSM-5 does not restrict it to patients under 18 — past age 18, if criteria are still met and the threshold for antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) has not been reached, conduct disorder can still be diagnosed, and the two are not diagnosed together (an adult meeting ASPD criteria is diagnosed with ASPD instead). Conduct disorder is a precursor to ASPD, but the diagnosis does not automatically switch over on someone's eighteenth birthday.

Normal Aging: Every Neurotransmitter Moves in the Same Direction — Down

Full text · 1 table

The aging brain does not lose just one transmitter. DA, ACh, NE, and 5-HT all decline, along with cerebral blood flow and oxygen utilization, while IQ — buoyed by relatively preserved crystallized intelligence — can remain stable to about age 80. The exam loves reversing this direction: "NE increases with normal aging" is a trap — cross it out on sight.

ItemChangeKey point
Dopamine (DA)↓—
Acetylcholine (ACh)↓Most closely linked to cognitive decline
Norepinephrine (NE)↓Written as "increased" = wrong answer
Serotonin (5-HT)↓—
Cerebral blood flow/O₂ utilization↓—

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A few numbers worth memorizing: the prevalence of late-life depression is about 15%; arthritis is the most common cause of disability in the elderly (disability ≠ dementia); persecutory delusions are the most common type of late-onset delusional disorder; new-onset psychotic symptoms in the elderly usually respond to low-dose antipsychotics — "poor response" is a reverse trap, though EPS and falls warrant caution.

Differentiating Dementias: FTD Is "The Person Changed," AD Is "The Facts Are Forgotten"

⟶ Mechanism

Why do FTD and AD present so differently in their early stages? The causal chain is short: in FTD, the frontal lobe and anterior temporal lobe atrophy first → behavioral inhibition and social cognition collapse first → early disease is "the person changed," while memory is still intact; in AD, the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus are attacked first by amyloid/tau → recent memory collapses first → early disease is "the facts are forgotten," while social cognition is still intact. So "whichever region fails first determines what shows first" governs the presentation — reason this chain backward, and FTD's "early impairment of social cognition" is not something to memorize but something that necessarily follows.

FTD is "the person changed" (behavior/social skills fail first); AD is "the facts are forgotten" (memory fails first).
★ Must-know
Aging and Dementia
  • Normal aging: DA/ACh/NE/5-HT all decline; "NE rises" is a trap.
  • Prevalence of late-life depression is about 15%; arthritis is the most common cause of disability; persecutory delusions dominate late-onset delusional disorder.
  • Late-life psychosis: usually responds to low-dose antipsychotics, but stay alert for EPS/falls.
  • FTD early = the person changed (behavior/social skills/language); AD early = the facts are forgotten (memory).
  • Traps: writing NE as "rising"; describing FTD's social cognition as "relatively preserved"; equating disability with dementia.
Full text · 1 table
Case

The old man who screamed at the store clerk and started taking off his pants in public — his wife said "he seems like a different person." She was not wrong: this is FTD (frontotemporal dementia). If instead an old woman "cannot recall the dish she cooked just last week," that is AD.

FeatureFrontotemporal dementia (FTD)Alzheimer disease (AD)
Early core featurePersonality/behavior change, language impairmentMemory impairment (especially recent memory)
Social cognitionMarkedly impaired earlyRelatively preserved early
Learning and memoryRelatively preserved earlyImpaired early
Age of onsetEarlier, often <65 yearsLater

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Remember this one line and every comparison question answers itself. FTD's "early impairment of social cognition" is the pit that reverse traps love to dig — if a question states "FTD preserves social cognition relatively well early on," that statement is false.

♪ Memory hook

In the developing brain, watch which circuit burns too bright; in the aging brain, watch which light goes dark first — get the direction straight, and the symptoms line themselves up.

Read-aloud version (copy the whole thing into any TTS)

A third-grade boy cannot stop moving in the exam room, sliding off his chair onto the floor and then climbing onto his mother's lap; his teacher at school complains that he cannot pay attention and blurts out in class. Across the waiting room sits a seventy-eight-year-old man; his wife says he has become a different person over the past six months — once meticulous and considerate, he now screams at store clerks at the supermarket, insists he has not eaten moments after finishing a meal, and has started taking off his pants in public. One is a developing brain with every door thrown open; the other is a degenerating brain going dark room by room. The two ends of the age spectrum in psychiatry are the pairing the licensing exam loves most to place side by side on the same page.

To understand ADHD, start back at the prefrontal cortex. Its essence is prefrontal executive-function deficiency: dopamine and norepinephrine signaling in the prefrontal cortex runs weak, so the child cannot sustain impulse inhibition or maintain attention. Because it is a developmental problem, the symptoms must be present since childhood and cannot first appear in adulthood; and because it is a whole-brain regulatory problem, it cannot occur in only one setting — it must show up across settings. Finally, an inability to sit still can just be a personality trait; only when it causes social, academic, or occupational impairment does it graduate into a disorder. So behind the three locks lies a single causal chain — just remember before age 12, two settings, functional impairment. The old "before age 7" cutoff is the outdated distractor the exam loves to dangle; symptoms confined to school, or onset in middle school, cannot be diagnosed unless all three locks open together. Medication follows the same mechanism: since prefrontal dopamine is deficient, central stimulants push it up, with methylphenidate and amphetamine-class agents working best; for patients who cannot tolerate stimulants, who have tics, or where abuse potential is a concern, switch to atomoxetine, a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, or to α2 agonists such as clonidine and guanfacine. Stimulants may temporarily affect appetite, growth, and sleep onset, but comorbid tics are not an absolute contraindication — that old belief has long since been corrected.

The core of Tourette syndrome is overactivation of the basal ganglia dopamine system and D2 receptor supersensitivity, so the reasoning chain runs straight through: suppress tics with D2 antagonists, and a dopamine agonist only pours fuel on the fire. Haloperidol, pimozide, risperidone, and aripiprazole can all improve tics; clonidine and guanfacine have fewer side effects and are the common first line, particularly suited to children with comorbid ADHD. Its heritability is high — traditional textbooks describe autosomal dominant inheritance with incomplete penetrance, while the modern view leans toward polygenic inheritance, though the exam still expects the old answer when it poses the question this way. One myth needs debunking: not every patient outgrows it naturally; the tics only partially remit. The core of autism spectrum disorder is deficits in social-emotional reciprocity plus restricted, repetitive behaviors, and the exam loves to ask about treatment, because it slips in the option that sounds most reasonable to deceive you. Applied behavior analysis, early intensive behavioral intervention, and speech therapy are all evidence-based; cognitive behavioral therapy is also effective for comorbid anxiety, depression, and OCD, but sensory integration therapy has no high-quality randomized controlled trial support for the core symptoms of autism — this is the most common trap. Conduct disorder is not a pediatric-only diagnosis; past age 18, if criteria are still met but the threshold for antisocial personality disorder has not been reached, it can still be diagnosed, and the two can even coexist — the diagnosis does not automatically switch on someone's birthday.

The most important thing to remember about normal aging is the direction: dopamine, acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and serotonin all decline together, cerebral blood flow and oxygen utilization decline as well, while IQ is better preserved through crystallized intelligence and can remain stable to about age 80. The exam loves to reverse the direction — seeing "norepinephrine rises with normal aging" should be crossed out immediately. Several geriatric figures are also frequently tested: the prevalence of late-life depression is about 15%, arthritis is the most common cause of disability in the elderly rather than dementia, and persecutory delusions are the most common type of late-onset delusional disorder. New-onset psychotic symptoms in the elderly usually respond to low-dose antipsychotics — "poor response" is a reverse trap — but watch for side effects such as extrapyramidal symptoms and falls.

Last comes the differentiation of the dementias. Frontotemporal dementia damages the frontal lobe and anterior temporal lobe, so what collapses first, early on, is personality, behavior, social cognition, and language, while learning and memory are relatively preserved; onset is also earlier, often before age 65. Alzheimer disease damages the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus, so what collapses first, early on, is recent memory, while social cognition is relatively preserved instead. One line to close it out: frontotemporal dementia is the person changed, Alzheimer disease is the facts forgotten. If a question describes FTD's social cognition as preserved early on, that is a reverse trap — it is impaired, not preserved, and getting this direction backward will cost you points across the whole set of linked questions. The entire chapter really comes down to a single habit of mind: first ask whether this brain is heading toward development or decline, then ask which transmitter or which region has gone wrong, and the symptoms will fall into place on their own.

🧪 Practice on this topic: 35 questions Taiwan board past papers · in Chinese, with explanations
Loading…
🧪 Whole exam sections (question book, in Chinese)Child and Geriatric Psychiatry 35
★ High-yield points & traps from past exams (1 section)
Child and Geriatric Psychiatry 35 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Age criterion for ADHDBefore age 12, requires ≥2 settings"Before age 7", "one setting"
Medication for TouretteD2 antagonists (haloperidol/risperidone) are effectiveChoosing a dopamine agonist; thinking it always resolves on its own
Inheritance of TouretteHighly heritable; traditional answer "autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance" (modern view: polygenic)Writing "recessive"
NE in normal agingDecreasesWriting "increases"
Treatment of ASDABA/speech therapy is effective; sensory integration has no evidence for core symptomsTreating sensory integration as an effective core therapy
Conduct disorderCan be diagnosed at age 18 or older; only if ASPD criteria are not met (the two are not diagnosed together)"Only <18 years"; "automatically becomes ASPD after 18"
Medication for late-life psychosisLow-dose antipsychotics are usually effective"Poor response"
Early FTDSocial cognition/behavior impaired early; memory relatively preservedSaying social cognition is "relatively preserved"

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Answering strategy: the distractors here are mostly "outdated criteria" (ADHD age 7) or "reversed statements" (NE increases with aging, social function preserved in FTD, Tourette recessive). For numeric/direction questions, recite the correct direction in your head before checking the options.

02

The Dopamine Storm: Schizophrenia and Psychosis

~4 min · 35 past questions

What truly disables patients with schizophrenia over the long term is not hallucinations or delusions but negative symptoms — flat affect, loss of motivation, social withdrawal. They respond poorly to medication and foretell a worse prognosis.

⟶ Mechanism

Schizophrenia is the classic example of "one disease, two dopamine pathways, opposite directions." Break the causal chain apart: excess DA in the mesolimbic pathway → positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions); deficient DA in the mesocortical pathway → negative symptoms (flat affect, avolition, withdrawal). Why are there two generations of treatment? First-generation agents strongly antagonize D2 → mesolimbic dopamine is suppressed, positive symptoms improve → but the nigrostriatal pathway is blocked along with it → extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) and tardive dyskinesia appear; second-generation agents add 5-HT2A antagonism → serotonin's inhibition of striatal DA is lifted → nigrostriatal dopamine is released → EPS decreases → negative symptoms also respond somewhat better. Trap: mistakenly classifying haloperidol as second-generation; assuming "olfactory hallucinations" are most common in schizophrenia (in fact auditory hallucinations are most common, and olfactory hallucinations should instead raise suspicion for temporal lobe epilepsy or an organic cause).

Full text
Case

A 19-year-old male college student is brought into the emergency department by his family. His grades have been sliding for three months, and he has recently started tearing apart his bookshelf looking for a "listening device," shouting into empty air at midnight, "Don't tell me to jump." His mother says "he has become completely hollow" — he will not bathe, will not speak, and his eyes have gone vacant. Three clues line up side by side — auditory hallucinations, delusions, plus flat affect and loss of motivation — pointing to a single diagnosis.

Three Contrasts: Positive vs. Negative, First- vs. Second-Generation, Good vs. Poor Prognosis

Full text · 1 table
TypeContentCharacteristics
Positive symptomsHallucinations, delusions, formal thought disorder, bizarre behaviorProminent in the acute phase; respond better to medication
Negative symptomsFlat affect, avolition, social withdrawal, impoverished thought, alogiaThe long-term core; respond poorly to conventional agents

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The 4 A's that Bleuler described as primary symptoms form a mnemonic skeleton left over from a century ago: Associations (loosening of associations), Autism (autistic thinking, which emphasizes subjectivity — a self-centered distortion of objective reality), Affect (flattened affect), and Ambivalence. If a question states that "autistic thinking emphasizes objectivity," that reverses the direction and is a trap.

Hallucination, illusion, and delusion are three terms often confused, though their definitions are actually crisp: hallucination = a perception without a stimulus (hearing a voice when no one is speaking); illusion = a stimulus misperceived (mistaking a rope for a snake); delusion = a fixed, false belief (an unshakeable conviction of being monitored, immune to logic). The most common hallucination in schizophrenia is auditory, with command auditory hallucinations being the most classic and the most dangerous; olfactory hallucinations should instead raise suspicion for temporal lobe epilepsy or an organic cause — they are uncommon in schizophrenia, which is exactly the trap the licensing exam loves to dig.

Diagnostic Timeline, Medications, and Clozapine

⟶ Mechanism

Clozapine is the special case in this group — it is the only agent with proven efficacy in treatment-resistant schizophrenia, and the only one shown to reduce suicide risk; but because of the risk of agranulocytosis, it requires regular CBC monitoring, so it is never first-line but is instead the reserve trump card for treatment-resistant cases. Other important side effects: lowered seizure threshold, myocarditis (in the first 1–2 months), sialorrhea, decreased bowel motility, and metabolic syndrome. In one sentence: clozapine is the "most effective but most dangerous" drug — to save the sickest patients, you must draw blood the most often. Trap: assuming you should monitor clozapine's serum level (you actually monitor the white cell count); assuming it is first-line (it is reserved for treatment-resistant cases only).

⚠ Trap
✗🦦The most common hallucination in schizophrenia is olfactory, right? I remember smell being important.
✓🐻‍❄️Exactly the opposite. The most common hallucination in schizophrenia is auditory, with command auditory hallucinations being the most classic and most dangerous; olfactory hallucinations should instead raise suspicion for temporal lobe epilepsy or an organic cause. When the exam brings up olfactory hallucinations, it is leading you astray.
Full text · 1 table

To diagnose schizophrenia, symptoms (including the active phase) must persist for ≥6 months (including prodromal/residual phases). By contrast: schizophreniform disorder, 1–6 months; brief psychotic disorder, <1 month. The exam loves to swap "6 months" for "1 year" as a trap.

Drug generationExamplesMechanismFeatures
First-generation (typical)haloperidol, chlorpromazinePrimarily blocks D2More EPS; poor for negative symptoms
Second-generation (atypical)risperidone, olanzapine, aripiprazole, clozapineBlocks D2 + 5-HT2ALess EPS; better for negative symptoms

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Remember that haloperidol is first-generation (it is frequently misclassified as second-generation). A key point on side effects: akathisia can be managed with a β-blocker (propranolol); patients who develop EPS early are more likely to later develop tardive dyskinesia.

Prognostic Factors: The More "Affective" It Looks, the Better the Outlook

★ Must-know
Schizophrenia
  • Positive symptoms respond well to medication; negative symptoms are the long-term core and the source of disability.
  • Bleuler's 4 A's: Associations / Autism (subjectivity) / Affect / Ambivalence; "objectivity" is the reverse trap.
  • Most common hallucination = auditory (command hallucinations are the most dangerous); olfactory hallucinations should raise suspicion for an organic cause/temporal lobe epilepsy.
  • Diagnostic timeline ≥6 months; schizophreniform 1–6 months; brief psychotic disorder <1 month.
  • haloperidol = first-generation; treat akathisia with propranolol.
  • Clozapine is the only agent effective for treatment-resistant disease and the only one that lowers suicide risk; monitor CBC regularly (agranulocytosis).
  • Prevalence about 1%, roughly equal between sexes; suicide mortality traditionally 10%, newer data about 5%.
  • Involuntary hospitalization must follow Mental Health Act procedures; not a single physician's call.
  • Traps: olfactory hallucinations, "objectivity," "6 months" rewritten as "1 year," haloperidol misclassified as second-generation, "women twice as often," a 25–50% suicide rate, involuntary hospitalization by one physician.
Full text · 1 table

The direction of prognosis also grows straight out of the mechanism: the more a case resembles an affective psychosis (acute onset, a clear precipitating factor, late onset, female, predominantly positive symptoms, a family history of affective illness), the better the prognosis; the more it resembles "pure schizophrenia" (insidious onset, no precipitating factor, early onset, male, prominent negative symptoms, a family history of schizophrenia), the worse the prognosis.

Better prognosisWorse prognosis
Family history of affective disorderFamily history of schizophrenia
Clear precipitating factorNo precipitating factor
Acute onsetInsidious/gradual
Late onsetEarly onset
FemaleMale
Predominantly positive symptomsProminent negative symptoms

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A few figures worth memorizing cold: prevalence is about 1%, roughly equal between the sexes — "women are affected twice as often as men" is a common error; age of onset is 15–25 years in men, 20–30 years in women; the lifetime suicide mortality rate was written as about 10% in traditional textbooks (the old 1977 Miles figure), revised by newer meta-analyses to about 5% (4.9%) — but this is still far higher than the general population, and far below inflated options such as "25–50%." Risk factors include depressive episodes, command auditory hallucinations, the period right after discharge, early in the illness course, young men, and the point at which insight has just returned.

Finally, the legal side: involuntary hospitalization must follow the procedures of the Mental Health Act, and a single physician cannot decide it alone — it typically requires a severely ill patient, a risk of harm to self or others, plus a review mechanism. This is a gift question, but "one physician can decide alone" is the trap you must cross out.

♪ Memory hook

Schizophrenia is a dopamine imbalance — too much in the limbic system is noise, too little in the cortex is emptiness; medication suppresses the positive symptoms, but the negative symptoms are the long-term core.

Read-aloud version (copy the whole thing into any TTS)

A nineteen-year-old male college student is brought into the emergency department by his family. His grades have been sliding for three months, and he has recently started tearing his room apart looking for a listening device, shouting into empty air at midnight, don't tell me to jump. His mother says he has become completely hollow — he will not bathe, will not speak, his eyes have gone vacant. Auditory hallucinations, delusions, plus flat affect and loss of motivation — three clues lined up side by side, pointing to schizophrenia. To understand this disease, start back at the dopamine pathways. Excess dopamine in the mesolimbic system props up the positive symptoms — hallucinations and delusions; deficient dopamine in the mesocortical pathway flattens affect, extinguishes motivation, and drives the social withdrawal that props up the negative symptoms.

Haloperidol, the representative first-generation antipsychotic, primarily blocks D2 receptors, so it can suppress positive symptoms but is powerless against negative symptoms, and because it blocks dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway as well, it carries a heavy burden of extrapyramidal side effects. Second-generation drugs block both D2 and 5-HT2A; serotonin's inhibition of striatal dopamine is thereby loosened, so dopamine at the cortical end is somewhat freed up, giving a slightly better effect on negative symptoms and fewer extrapyramidal side effects. The four A's that Bleuler left behind form a mnemonic skeleton from a century ago — loosening of associations, autistic thinking, flattened affect, and ambivalence — and the key to autistic thinking is subjectivity, a self-centered distortion of objective reality; if a question says it emphasizes objectivity, that is a reverse trap. The definitions of hallucination, illusion, and delusion are actually crisp: a hallucination is a perceptual experience arising without any external stimulus, an illusion is a stimulus whose nature is misjudged, and a delusion is a fixed false belief that neither reality nor logic can shake. The most common hallucination in schizophrenia is auditory, with command auditory hallucinations being the most classic and the most dangerous; olfactory hallucinations should instead raise suspicion for temporal lobe epilepsy or another organic cause, because they are actually uncommon in schizophrenia — this is exactly the trap the licensing exam loves to dig.

The diagnostic timeline to remember is six months: symptoms including the active phase must persist for at least six months, counting the prodromal and residual phases as well; one to six months is called schizophreniform disorder, and less than one month is called brief psychotic disorder. The exam loves to misstate six months as one year — cross it out on sight. Haloperidol is first-generation; do not flip this classification. Medication-induced akathisia leaves the patient restless and unable to sit still, pacing back and forth, and is most easily misjudged as agitation, so adding more antipsychotic only makes it worse — the correct management is to reduce the dose or add a β-blocker such as propranolol. Patients who develop extrapyramidal symptoms early are, in the long run, more likely to develop irreversible tardive dyskinesia, which is also why second-generation drugs have an advantage on this point.

Clozapine is the special case in this group: it is the only drug with proven efficacy in treatment-resistant schizophrenia and the only one shown to reduce suicide risk; but the price is the risk of agranulocytosis, so what must be monitored regularly is the white cell count, not the drug level. Because of this risk, it is never first-line but instead the reserve trump card for refractory patients. Other important side effects include a lowered seizure threshold, myocarditis in the first one to two months, decreased bowel motility, sialorrhea, and metabolic syndrome. One line to close it out: clozapine is the most effective but most dangerous drug — to save the sickest patients, you must draw blood the most often.

Prognosis also grows straight out of the mechanism: the more a case resembles affective psychosis, the more optimistic the outlook — acute onset, a precipitating factor, late onset, female, predominantly positive symptoms, and a family history of affective illness are all good prognostic signs; the more it resembles pure schizophrenia, the worse the outlook — insidious onset, no precipitating factor, early onset, male, prominent negative symptoms, and a family history of schizophrenia are all poor prognostic signs. Epidemiology calls for three numbers: prevalence is about one percent and roughly equal between the sexes — "women are affected twice as often as men" is wrong; age of onset runs fifteen to twenty-five years in men, earlier than the twenty to thirty years typical of women; lifetime suicide mortality was written as about ten percent in traditional textbooks, revised by newer meta-analyses to about five percent, but whichever figure is used, it remains far higher than the general population and far below inflated options such as twenty-five to fifty percent. Finally, on the legal side, involuntary hospitalization must follow the procedures of the Mental Health Act, requiring a severely ill patient, a risk of harm to self or others, plus a review mechanism — it is never one physician's call alone.

🧪 Practice on this topic: 24 questions Taiwan board past papers · in Chinese, with explanations
Loading…
🧪 Whole exam sections (question book, in Chinese)Schizophrenia 24Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Side Effects 11
★ High-yield points & traps from past exams (2 sections)
Schizophrenia 24 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Bleuler 4AAssociations / Autism / Affect / AmbivalenceMissing items or getting them wrong
Autistic thinkingEmphasizes subjectivityWriting "objectivity"
Most common hallucinationAuditory hallucinations (command type most typical)Choosing olfactory hallucinations (actually a clue to organic disease/temporal lobe epilepsy)
Duration for diagnosis≥6 months"1 year"
haloperidolFirst generationMistaking it for second generation
Lifetime suicide mortalityTraditionally about 10%; revised by newer data to about 5%25–50% (grossly exaggerated)
Prevalence by sexSimilar (about 1%)"Twice as common in women"
Negative symptomsLong-term core feature, poor drug response, poor prognosisThinking hallucinations/delusions are the core
akathisiaTreat with propranolol—
Involuntary admissionMust follow the procedures of the Mental Health Act"One physician is enough"

Swipe or scroll sideways to compare every column; keyboard: focus the table and use arrow keys.

Answering strategy: for statement questions, first apply the three tables "positive/negative", "first/second generation", and "good/poor prognosis"; for numeric questions, lock onto the three high-frequency numbers 6 months, 1%, 10–13%.

Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Side Effects 11 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
First choice for treating deliriumLow-dose short-acting oral antipsychotic (haloperidol); find the cause firstChoosing a long-acting depot injection by mistake
Alcohol/BZD withdrawal deliriumBZD is the first choiceUsing haloperidol by mistake
Least suitable IM drug for acute agitationDiazepam IM (erratic absorption)Thinking all BZDs can be given IM; haloperidol/lorazepam actually can
Drug requiring WBC monitoringClozapine (agranulocytosis)Thinking blood levels must be monitored
Drugs requiring blood level monitoringLithium / VPA / carbamazepineIncluding clozapine in level monitoring
SSRI side effectsNausea, sexual dysfunction, insomnia, hyponatremia, etc.; not a rapid rise in blood glucoseTreating a glucose spike as an SSRI side effect
Indications for lithiumAcute mania + bipolar prophylaxis + anti-suicide effectUsing it for panic disorder/anorexia/alcoholism
Precipitants of lithium toxicityDehydration, NSAIDs, thiazides, ACEIs; dialysis if severeThinking diuretics are irrelevant
Rigidity + slow onset + CK↑NMS → dantrolene/bromocriptineConfusing it with serotonin syndrome
Myoclonus + hyperreflexia + rapid onsetSerotonin syndrome → cyproheptadineMistaking it for NMS
Restless and unable to sit still — add more drug?akathisia; reduce the dose/use a β-blockerMistaking it for agitation and adding more antipsychotic
Chronic involuntary movements of the mouth and tongueTardive dyskinesia; anticholinergics worsen itUsing anticholinergics (those treat acute dystonia)

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03

The Rise and Fall of Monoamines and the Amygdala's Alarm: Mood and Anxiety

~4 min · 53 past questions

Low monoamines mean depression, an over-alarmed amygdala means anxiety; antidepressants inhibit reuptake to let the monoamines accumulate, while anxiety has to have its alarm slowly dismantled.

Full text
Case

Three women take a seat in the clinic, one after another. A 35-year-old new mother has been crying day and night for three weeks, feels "useless," and often lies awake until dawn. A 26-year-old woman falls apart emotionally every week before her period — irritable, throwing things at her family — with symptoms vanishing the moment her period starts. A 22-year-old college student, three weeks after a car accident, still has recurrent nightmares, jumps at the sound of a car horn, and avoids every situation that involves driving. Three stories — major depressive disorder (MDD), premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD), and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), respectively — yet underneath there is only one throughline: the tug-of-war between the monoamines and the amygdala.

The Monoamine Hypothesis of Depression: Learn the Nuclei First, the Direction Second

⟶ Mechanism

The most classic model of major depressive disorder is a complete chain: genetics/stress → declining monoaminergic neuron function → insufficient synaptic NE/5-HT/DA → dysregulation of the circuits governing motivation, mood, sleep, and appetite → depressive symptoms; treatment runs the chain backward: antidepressants inhibit reuptake → synaptic monoamines accumulate → downstream receptors adapt → symptoms improve after several weeks. The nuclei of origin for the three transmitters: NE from the locus coeruleus, 5-HT from the raphe nuclei, DA from the VTA and substantia nigra. Trap: describing antidepressants as "enhancing reuptake" (backward — it should be inhibition); swapping the nuclei of origin for NE and 5-HT; remembering only one of the three transmitters.

Full text · 1 table
NeurotransmitterNucleus of originRelationship to depression
NE (norepinephrine)Locus coeruleusHypofunction
5-HT (serotonin)Raphe nucleiHypofunction
DA (dopamine)VTA/substantia nigraRelated to motivation and pleasure

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Two more directions — imaging and sleep — are also gift questions. PET: metabolism decreases in the anterior brain (especially the left DLPFC) in depression; mania shows the reverse. Sleep: REM latency shortens in depression (REM sleep begins sooner after falling asleep), with more awakenings, early-morning awakening, and reduced sleep efficiency — "REM latency increases" is the reverse trap.

Bipolar Disorder and the Teratogenicity Mnemonic

⟶ Mechanism

The first episode of bipolar disorder can be either a depressive episode or a manic episode; it is not necessarily manic — this is a classic reverse trap. Long-term patients may develop cognitive decline, and those with a family history of schizophrenia also carry a higher risk of developing the disorder (psychotic disorders cluster within families).

⚠ Trap
✗🦦The first episode of bipolar disorder has to be a manic episode, right? Otherwise why call it "bipolar"?
✓🐻‍❄️That is the classic distractor. The first episode can be depressive; it is not necessarily manic or hypomanic — many patients go through multiple depressive episodes before their first manic one. And remember the pregnancy mnemonic: lithium → heart, valproate (VPA)/carbamazepine → spine; the drug most to be avoided is valproate, while lamotrigine is actually one of the relatively safest choices.
Full text · 1 table

The teratogenicity of mood stabilizers in pregnancy is a high-frequency gift question — follow the direction of the organ malformation and it is easy to remember:

DrugMain teratogenic effectPregnancy safety
LithiumEbstein anomaly (downward displacement of the tricuspid valve, a cardiac malformation)Moderate; requires individualized weighing
Valproic acidNeural tube defectsShould be avoided above all (also affects neurodevelopment)
CarbamazepineNeural tube defectsHigh risk
LamotrigineEarly registries suggested a signal for isolated cleft palate, but the absolute risk is minimalRelatively the safest

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Mnemonic: lithium → heart (Ebstein), valproate (VPA)/carbamazepine → spine (neural tube). The concept that needs updating: newer large-scale meta-analyses show no significant association between lamotrigine and oral clefts, with an absolute excess risk below 1/550, so valproate is the drug most to be avoided in pregnancy, while lamotrigine is actually one of the relatively safest options. If the exam still gives the old "lamotrigine → oral clefts" as the standard answer, treat it as a historical signal only — do not mistake it for being more dangerous than valproate.

The "Does Not Belong" Trap in PMS/PMDD

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Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs during the luteal phase and resolves once menstruation begins; premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is the more severe, DSM-5-recognized version, with severe mood instability the week before menstruation. There are two must-know "does not belong" traps here:

Does not belongWhy
Hot flashes do not belong to PMS/PMDDPMS/PMDD occurs during the luteal phase, when estrogen and progesterone are both still present; hot flashes belong to menopausal estrogen deficiency
Delusions do not belong to PMDDDelusions are a psychotic symptom requiring a separate diagnosis; they are not a symptom of PMDD

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Suicide Risk: Psychosis Is a High Risk, Not a Protective Factor

Full text · 1 table
High riskProtective
Psychosis (especially command hallucinations demanding suicide)Good family relationships
Severe depression, hopelessnessAdequate social support
Social isolation, lack of supportReligious/cultural deterrents
Past suicide attempts, substance abuse—

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The exam loves to list psychosis as a "protective factor" — wrong; it is a high-risk factor, especially command hallucinations demanding suicide.

The Anxiety Spectrum: Amygdala Over-Alarm × Timeline

⟶ Mechanism

The essence of anxiety disorders is a single shared circuit knocked out of balance: genetics/stress → amygdala hypersensitivity → threat alarms fire even for neutral stimuli → insufficient prefrontal inhibition, unable to switch the alarm back off → autonomic activation + avoidance behavior → chronic anxiety. The only differences are "what is feared" and "for how long." Remember the timeline and the trigger, and every disorder on the spectrum falls into line automatically. Trap: dividing acute stress disorder (ASD) from PTSD by "type of symptom" (in fact they are divided purely by "whether a month has passed"); viewing generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) as a mild, short-lived illness (in fact about 60% become chronic).

Full text · 1 table
DisorderCore fearKey timing/thresholdHallmark
GAD (generalized anxiety disorder)Excessive worry about "multiple things"≥6 months + ≥3 somatic symptomsChronic, free-floating anxiety, muscle tension, insomnia
Panic disorderSudden, out-of-the-blue panic attacksPeaks within minutes + ≥1 month of fearing recurrencePalpitations, sense of impending doom, most likely to rush to the ER
Specific phobiaA single object (heights, needles, animals)≥6 monthsFear on sight, avoidance
SAD (social anxiety disorder)Being "judged by others"≥6 monthsFear of public embarrassment
OCDIntrusive obsessions>1 hour per dayObsessions → compulsions relieve them
ASD (acute stress disorder)Post-trauma3 days to 1 monthDissociation, re-experiencing, hyperarousal
PTSDPost-trauma>1 month4 symptom clusters + negative mood/cognition

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One line to close it out: ASD and PTSD are two stages of the same illness, and the only difference is "whether a month has passed." Before one month it is called ASD; past one month it is upgraded to PTSD. ASD must include dissociative symptoms (amnesia, derealization, depersonalization) — if a question states "ASD does not include dissociation," that is wrong.

The trap in GAD lies in its course and age of onset. The peak age of onset is relatively young, in the 20s to 30s, with a female-to-male ratio of about 2:1; the course becomes chronic in about 60% of cases, with frequent fluctuation and relapse — it is not a mild illness that resolves easily. The mechanism of panic disorder is a burst of norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus plus a hypersensitive brainstem false-suffocation alarm, which is why patients become convinced they are having a heart attack and have the highest rate of rushing to the emergency department. The circuit in OCD is overactivation of the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical (CSTC) loop plus serotonergic dysregulation; the formula is that obsessions raise anxiety, compulsions briefly lower it, and the cycle then reinforces itself.

First-Line Medications: SSRI/SNRI + CBT Is the Backbone

⚠ Trap
✗🦦A post-trauma patient has endless nightmares and can't sleep — surely a benzodiazepine to calm things down is fine?
✓🐻‍❄️That is the biggest medication trap in PTSD. Benzodiazepines are not recommended in PTSD — they are ineffective, increase dependence risk, and worsen the long-term course. Use prazosin (an α1 antagonist) for nightmares and hyperarousal; the drugs of choice are SSRI/SNRI, and the first-line psychotherapy is trauma-focused CBT or EMDR.
★ Must-know
Mood and Anxiety
  • Depression monoamines: NE from the locus coeruleus, 5-HT from the raphe nuclei; antidepressants inhibit reuptake.
  • PET in depression shows decreased anterior (left DLPFC) metabolism; REM latency shortens (not increases).
  • Bipolar disorder's first episode can be depressive; pregnancy mnemonic: lithium → heart, valproate (VPA)/carbamazepine → spine; valproate is most to be avoided, while lamotrigine is relatively the safest.
  • PMS/PMDD occur in the luteal phase → do not include hot flashes; PMDD does not include delusions.
  • Suicide: psychosis is a high-risk factor, not protective.
  • ASD and PTSD are divided by the one-month mark; ASD must include dissociation.
  • GAD: ≥6 months, ≥3 somatic symptoms, about 60% become chronic.
  • First line: SSRI/SNRI + CBT; OCD needs high doses + ERP; PTSD uses prazosin for nightmares, benzodiazepines are not recommended.
  • OCD is roughly equal between sexes, with earlier onset in men; IBS is the most common anxiety comorbidity.
  • Traps: antidepressants "enhancing" reuptake, REM latency increasing, bipolar disorder always starting with mania, PMDD including delusions, ASD excluding dissociation, using benzodiazepines in PTSD.
Full text

First-line medication across nearly the entire anxiety spectrum is SSRI/SNRI, and first-line psychotherapy is CBT. The specific points for each:

  • OCD: SSRIs often require higher doses and take longer to work; ERP (exposure and response prevention) is the core treatment; treatment-resistant cases can add clomipramine (a potent serotonergic TCA) or augment with a low-dose antipsychotic.
  • PTSD: first-line treatment is trauma-focused CBT, EMDR; the drugs of choice are SSRI/SNRI (sertraline and paroxetine carry the indication); prazosin (an α1 antagonist) can be added for nightmares/hyperarousal. Benzodiazepines are not recommended in PTSD — they are ineffective and increase the risk of dependence and worsen the long-term course.
  • Panic disorder: short-term benzodiazepines may be used acutely; long term, SSRI/SNRI + CBT.
  • GAD: SSRI/SNRI + CBT; buspirone (a 5-HT1A partial agonist) may be used; benzodiazepines only as a short-term bridge.

Last is sex distribution and comorbidity: OCD is roughly equal between the sexes, with earlier onset in men (most other anxiety disorders are more common in women); functional gastrointestinal disorder (IBS) is the most common comorbidity with anxiety disorders, with a comorbidity rate of 40–60%, sharing autonomic hypersensitivity and gut-brain axis dysregulation.

♪ Memory hook

Low monoamines mean depression, an over-alarmed amygdala means anxiety; antidepressants inhibit reuptake to let the monoamines accumulate, while anxiety has to have its alarm slowly dismantled.

Read-aloud version (copy the whole thing into any TTS)

Three women take a seat in the clinic, one after another: a thirty-five-year-old new mother crying day and night, feeling useless, often lying awake until dawn; a twenty-six-year-old woman who falls apart emotionally and throws things every week before her period, with symptoms vanishing the moment her period starts; a twenty-two-year-old college student who, three weeks after a car accident, has recurrent nightmares, jumps at the sound of a car horn, and avoids every situation involving driving. Three stories — depression, premenstrual dysphoria, and posttraumatic stress — yet underneath lies the same single throughline: the tug-of-war between the monoamines and the amygdala.

The most classic model of major depressive disorder is monoaminergic hypofunction. Norepinephrine comes from the locus coeruleus, serotonin from the raphe nuclei, and dopamine from the ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra — do not swap these nuclei, since the licensing exam loves to exchange the sources of norepinephrine and serotonin. Declining function produces depression, and the action of antidepressants is to inhibit reuptake so that monoamines accumulate in the synapse — note that it is inhibition, not enhancement, and this direction accounts for the bulk of the reverse traps. All three transmitters are related to depression, and remembering only one of them is also a common mistake. Imaging and sleep are simply extensions of this same chain: in depression, metabolism decreases in the anterior brain, especially the left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, with mania showing the reverse; sleep shows shortened REM latency, entering REM sooner after falling asleep, not later — this direction is also frequently written backward. The first episode of bipolar disorder can be either a depressive episode or a manic episode, and is not necessarily manic — this is a classic distractor; long-term patients may develop cognitive decline, and those with a family history of schizophrenia also carry a higher risk of developing the disorder, because psychotic disorders cluster within families.

The teratogenicity of mood stabilizers in pregnancy is easy to remember by following the direction of the organ affected: lithium harms the heart, causing Ebstein anomaly with downward displacement of the tricuspid valve; valproate and carbamazepine harm the spine, causing neural tube defects; the older literature on lamotrigine once reported a signal for cleft lip and palate, but newer large-scale meta-analyses show an absolute excess risk below one in five hundred fifty, no longer considered significant, so the drug most to be avoided in pregnancy is actually valproate, while lamotrigine is instead one of the relatively safest options. Both premenstrual syndrome and premenstrual dysphoric disorder occur during the luteal phase, when estrogen and progesterone are both still present, so hot flashes are never among the symptoms — hot flashes only occur with the estrogen deficiency of menopause; delusions are a psychotic symptom requiring a separate diagnosis and fall outside the scope of premenstrual dysphoric disorder — these two "does not belong" options are exactly the distractors the exam loves to insert.

Suicide risk assessment has one direction you must never reverse: psychosis is a high-risk factor, not a protective one, especially when command auditory hallucinations demand suicide; the protective factors are family relationships, social support, and religious deterrents. Every disorder on the anxiety spectrum is at its core amygdala hyperarousal combined with insufficient prefrontal inhibition — the only differences are what is feared and for how long. Generalized anxiety disorder requires six months of symptoms plus three somatic symptoms, peaks in onset during the twenties and thirties, and becomes chronic in about sixty percent of cases — it is not a mild anxiety that resolves easily. The mechanism of panic disorder is a burst of norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus plus a hypersensitive brainstem false-suffocation alarm, which is why patients become convinced they are having a heart attack and panic disorder is the anxiety disorder most likely to send someone rushing to the emergency department; the diagnosis requires an attack peaking within minutes plus at least one month of fearing recurrence or a resulting behavior change. The circuit in obsessive-compulsive disorder is overactivation of the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop plus serotonergic dysregulation — obsessions raise anxiety, compulsions lower it, and the cycle then reinforces itself. The two post-trauma stages are the same illness divided by the one-month mark: before one month it is called acute stress disorder, and past one month it is upgraded to posttraumatic stress disorder; the criteria for acute stress disorder explicitly include a cluster of dissociative symptoms — amnesia, derealization, and depersonalization — so if a question states that acute stress disorder does not include dissociation, that is wrong.

In terms of medication, first line across the entire spectrum is a serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor plus cognitive behavioral therapy — that is the backbone. Each disorder has its own small differences: obsessive-compulsive disorder needs higher doses and takes longer to show benefit, with exposure and response prevention as its core treatment, and treatment-resistant cases can add clomipramine, a potent serotonergic tricyclic antidepressant, or augment with a low-dose antipsychotic. The biggest trap in posttraumatic stress disorder is benzodiazepines — they are not recommended for this disorder, being ineffective while increasing dependence and worsening the long-term course; nightmares and hyperarousal should instead be treated with prazosin, an α1 antagonist; the drugs of choice are serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and the first-line psychotherapies are trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing. In panic disorder, short-term benzodiazepines may be used acutely, while the long-term approach is likewise a serotonergic drug plus cognitive behavioral therapy including exposure. Sex distribution and comorbidity are also worth noting: obsessive-compulsive disorder is roughly equal between the sexes with earlier onset in men, the reverse of most other anxiety disorders, which are more common in women; functional gastrointestinal disorders, especially irritable bowel syndrome, are the most common comorbidity with anxiety disorders, with a comorbidity rate of forty to sixty percent, because the two share autonomic hypersensitivity and gut-brain axis dysregulation.

🧪 Practice on this topic: 53 questions Taiwan board past papers · in Chinese, with explanations
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★ High-yield points & traps from past exams (2 sections)
Depression and Bipolar Disorder 26 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Monoamines in depressionNE/5-HT/DA are all involvedRemembering only one; mixing up their nuclei of origin
Mechanism of antidepressantsInhibit monoamine reuptakeWriting "enhance reuptake"
PET in depressionAnterior (left) metabolism ↓Writing increased; or applying the direction seen in mania
REM latencyShortened in depressionWriting "increased"
First episode of bipolar disorderCan be a depressive episode"Must be mania"
Teratogenicity of lithiumEbstein anomalyRecording it as neural tube defects
valproate/carbamazepineNeural tube defects; valproate is the one most to avoid in pregnancyRecording them as cardiac malformations
lamotrigine in pregnancyRelatively the safest (the oral cleft signal carries a very small absolute risk)Thinking it is more dangerous than valproate
PMSDoes not include hot flashesSlipping in menopausal hot flashes
PMDDDoes not include delusionsListing delusions as a symptom
SuicidePsychosis is high riskTreating it as a protective factor

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Answering strategy: for mechanism questions, guard the "direction" (metabolism↓, shortened REM latency, reuptake inhibition); for drug questions, use the mnemonic "lithium → heart, valproate/carbamazepine → spine, lamotrigine → lip"; for diagnostic-boundary questions, rule out quickly with "luteal phase → no hot flashes; delusions belong to another diagnosis".

Anxiety/Panic/Obsessive-Compulsive/Post-Traumatic Disorders 19 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Does ASD (acute stress disorder) include dissociative symptoms?Yes (amnesia/derealization/depersonalization)Any statement saying "no dissociation" is wrong
ASD vs PTSD cutoff1 month (under = ASD, beyond = PTSD)Distinguishing them by symptom type instead of time
Duration for GAD≥6 months + ≥3 physical symptomsRecording 1 month
Peak onset/course of GADYoung (20s–30s), about 60% become chronicInferring "peak at 50–65 years" or "mild cases resolve quickly"
Anxiety disorder that most often brings patients to the EDPanic disorder (acute physical symptoms + sense of impending death)Choosing GAD by mistake
First-line drugs for anxiety disordersSSRI/SNRI (+ CBT)Choosing antipsychotics/long-term BZDs by mistake
Treatment of OCDSSRI (high dose) + ERP; clomipramine can be addedGiving only BZDs
Drugs to avoid in PTSDBZDs not recommended; prazosin for nightmaresTreating BZDs as the first choice for PTSD
Medical illness most often comorbid with anxietyFunctional GI disorders/IBSChoosing peptic ulcer by mistake
Sex distribution of OCDSimilar in men and women; earlier onset in malesRecording "female > male"

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04

Slamming the Brakes and Flooring the Gas: Substances, Emergencies, and Psychiatric Medications

~6 min · 49 past questions

Lithium, VPA, and CBZ are monitored by "checking levels" (narrow window); clozapine is monitored by "checking the white cell count" (fear of bone marrow collapse), not by checking its level — do not reverse this.

Full text
Case

Two beds in the emergency department. In one lies a 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder, who on the third day of abstinence suddenly begins trembling, seeing nonexistent insects crawling up the wall, his heart rate at 140 and his blood pressure spiking to 180. In the other lies a 23-year-old woman who, while taking an SSRI, added the painkiller tramadol on her own — two hours ago she began shaking all over, with myoclonus, a temperature spiking to 40°C, and hyperreflexia. Both patients are "febrile, agitated, and racing on autonomic overdrive," but in one the brakes have failed, and in the other the gas pedal is stuck — and the drugs required are entirely different.

Stimulant vs. Depressant: Intoxication and Withdrawal Run in Opposite Directions

⟶ Mechanism

Almost every substance-use question can be cracked with a single principle: intoxication and withdrawal run in opposite directions. The causal chain for depressants: chronic alcohol use → GABA receptors downregulate, NMDA receptors upregulate (the brain compensates by adding its own gas) → once the drug stops, the brake suddenly releases → a surge of excitatory neural activity → seizures, an autonomic storm, delirium tremens (DT) → high mortality. Stimulants run the reverse: chronic use → chronic depletion of synaptic DA/NE, receptor downregulation → once the drug stops → fatigue, hypersomnia, depression, increased appetite → usually not fatal. In one sentence: "the longer the brakes have been pressed, the more dangerous it is to let go." Trap: assuming stimulant withdrawal is the most lethal; assuming haloperidol can be given for alcohol withdrawal (it lowers the seizure threshold and does not protect against DT).

Full text · 1 table
CampRepresentative substancesIntoxicationWithdrawal
StimulantsAmphetamine, cocaine, caffeine, nicotineExcitement, agitation, mydriasis, ↑heart rate/blood pressure, paranoia and auditory hallucinationsFatigue, hypersomnia, depression, ↑appetite
DepressantsAlcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, opioidsSedation, drowsiness, respiratory depression, miosis (opioids)Over-excitation, agitation, seizures, autonomic storm

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Alcohol: Memorize "Tremor → Hallucinosis → Seizure → Delirium"

⚠ Trap
✗🦦For alcohol withdrawal, should I give haloperidol first to suppress the hallucinations?
✓🐻‍❄️That will backfire. BZDs are first-line for alcohol/benzodiazepine withdrawal delirium (DT), because they restore the brake and prevent seizures and DT; haloperidol cannot prevent withdrawal seizures and may actually lower the seizure threshold. For delirium in general, find the underlying cause and use low-dose short-acting oral haloperidol, but withdrawal delirium is the exception. Remember the sequence: tremor → hallucinosis → seizure → delirium; DT is the most lethal, and only a BZD saves lives.
Full text · 1 table
Time (after last drink)PresentationKey point
6–8 hoursTremor, autonomic hyperactivityEarliest
12–24 hoursAlcoholic hallucinosisHallucinations with a clear sensorium
24–48 hoursWithdrawal seizuresGeneralized tonic-clonic seizures
48–72 hoursDelirium tremens (DT)Confusion + hallucinations + autonomic storm; highest mortality

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The iron rule of treatment: BZDs (lorazepam/diazepam) are first-line for withdrawal, because they show cross-tolerance with alcohol and can prevent seizures and DT; phenobarbital has a narrow safety window and is not first-line. Thiamine (B1) must always be given before glucose — giving glucose first depletes thiamine and can precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy (the triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion). Hypomagnesemia is a common accompanying finding that should be corrected. Long-term maintenance drugs for sobriety include disulfiram, naltrexone, and acamprosate.

The mechanism of alcoholic blackout is also frequently tested: alcohol inhibits hippocampal NMDA receptors → hippocampal LTP fails → short-term memories cannot consolidate into long-term memory → events occurring "during" intoxication cannot be recalled, long-term memory remains intact, and the person's outward behavior may look normal at the time. So the essence of a blackout is anterograde amnesia within a transient amnesia, not retrograde amnesia, and not a loss of long-term memory.

Stimulants, Opioids, and Others

Full text · 1 table

Amphetamine, methamphetamine, and cocaine are central stimulants; intoxication presents with agitation, paranoia, auditory hallucinations, and cardiovascular events, while withdrawal is the opposite — fatigue, hypersomnia, and depression. Management of amphetamine-induced psychosis: (1) stop the drug (the top priority), (2) for acute psychosis/agitation, use a short-acting antipsychotic such as haloperidol; physical restraint is only for temporary safety purposes. Do not use carbamazepine — it has no established indication for amphetamine-induced psychosis.

SubstanceMechanism/key pointFrequently tested
KetamineNMDA receptor antagonistDissociative anesthesia, hallucinations, memory impairment; low-dose use studied for treatment-resistant depression
Opioidsμ-receptor agonismIntoxication: pinpoint pupils + respiratory depression + ↓consciousness; antidote naloxone; withdrawal is miserable but rarely fatal
Caffeine withdrawalAdenosine receptor reboundAppears 12–24 hours after stopping; mainly headache + fatigue; no hallucinations or delusions
Nicotine withdrawal—Craving, irritability, poor concentration, ↑appetite

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For chronic insomnia, a short-acting, high-potency hypnotic (such as triazolam) should not be first choice; first-line treatment should be CBT-I, and when medication is used, an agent with an intermediate duration of action is preferred. Combining alcohol with a hypnotic/benzodiazepine produces synergistic central depression, which can cause fatal respiratory depression.

The Logic of Formulation in Psychiatric Drugs: Acute Care Needs "Fast and Titratable"

⟶ Mechanism

The core of acute management is fast onset, titratability, and monitorability — so choose a drug that is short-acting and well absorbed orally or intramuscularly. Long-acting depot injections have a slow onset and cannot be titrated; they are for maintenance treatment, not acute care. Diazepam IM is highly lipophilic and its intramuscular absorption is erratic, so lorazepam IM, not diazepam IM, is the choice for acute intramuscular injection.

Full text · 1 table
ScenarioFirst choiceRationale
Delirium (non-withdrawal)Low-dose short-acting oral haloperidol + first find the underlying causeTitratable, fast onset; a depot injection is wrong
Alcohol/BZD withdrawal deliriumBZD (lorazepam/diazepam)Cross-tolerance, prevents seizures and DT
Acute agitation, IM routehaloperidol, lorazepam, olanzapine IMStable absorption
Unsuitable for IM injectionDiazepam IMErratic absorption, poor bioavailability

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Three safety warnings: olanzapine IM must not be combined with a parenteral BZD (there have been reports of fatal cardiorespiratory depression); haloperidol (especially IV) prolongs the QT interval; droperidol carries a black-box warning for QT prolongation.

Which Drugs Require Blood Monitoring, and for What

Full text · 1 table
DrugMonitoringWhy
LithiumSerum level (maintenance 0.6–1.0, acute 0.8–1.2 mEq/L) + renal function + TSHNarrow therapeutic window, high risk of toxicity
Valproic acidLevel (50–100 µg/mL) + liver function + platelets + ammoniaHepatotoxicity, hyperammonemic encephalopathy
CarbamazepineLevel + CBC + liver function + sodiumAutoinduction of metabolism, bone marrow suppression, SIADH-related hyponatremia
ClozapineWBC/ANC (serum level not routinely checked)Agranulocytosis

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Clozapine ANC monitoring schedule: weekly at the start → every two weeks after 6 months → monthly after 1 year. ANC <1000/µL warrants stopping the drug. Lithium's long-term side effects are nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (polyuria and thirst) + hypothyroidism + weight gain + tremor + teratogenicity (Ebstein anomaly); precipitants of toxicity = dehydration, NSAIDs, thiazides, ACE inhibitors, a low-sodium diet — all of which cause lithium retention; severe toxicity is cleared by hemodialysis.

Common side effects of SSRIs are nausea, sexual dysfunction, insomnia or hypersomnia, weight change, a bleeding tendency, early agitation, hyponatremia (especially in the elderly, via SIADH), and discontinuation syndrome — "a rapid rise in blood glucose" is not an SSRI side effect; that is a reverse trap. Discontinuation syndrome (from abruptly stopping a short-half-life SSRI such as paroxetine): dizziness, flu-like symptoms, paresthesias (electric-shock sensations), irritability — fluoxetine, with its long half-life, is the least likely to cause it.

The Four Types of EPS: Timing Is the Answer

⟶ Mechanism

The four types of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are not arranged at random — onset timing is the axis for both diagnosis and management: acute dystonia arrives within hours, akathisia within days to weeks, parkinsonism within weeks to months, and tardive dyskinesia (TD) within months to years. Management follows the same timeline — the acute forms are treated with an anticholinergic, while the chronic form is instead worsened by anticholinergics.

⚠ Trap
✗🦦The patient is restless and pacing back and forth — looks agitated. Should I increase the antipsychotic dose?
✓🐻‍❄️A landmine! This is akathisia, and increasing the dose only makes it worse. You should reduce the dose or add propranolol. Also remember: anticholinergics are contraindicated in tardive dyskinesia (those are for acute dystonia).
Full text · 1 table
TypeTimingPresentationManagement
Acute dystoniaHours to daysOculogyric crisis, torticollis, laryngospasmAnticholinergic (benztropine), diphenhydramine
AkathisiaDays to weeksSubjective restlessness, pacingReduce dose/β-blocker (propranolol); do not mistake it for agitation and increase the dose
ParkinsonismWeeks to monthsRigidity, resting tremor, bradykinesiaAnticholinergic or dose reduction
Tardive dyskinesiaMonths to yearsInvoluntary orofacial movements, often irreversibleStop/switch to an atypical agent; VMAT2 inhibitor (valbenazine); anticholinergics make it worse

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NMS vs. Serotonin Syndrome: Rigidity or Myoclonus?

⟶ Mechanism

Back to the two emergency-department beds from the opening: both patients are "febrile, agitated, and racing on autonomic overdrive," but the mechanisms are two opposite chains. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): antipsychotics strongly block D2, or L-dopa is abruptly stopped → central DA signaling collapses off a cliff → hypothalamic thermoregulation fails + striatal rigidity → high fever, lead-pipe rigidity, elevated CK, hyporeflexia, slow onset over days; the antidote is to restore DA — dantrolene relaxes the muscles, bromocriptine replenishes dopamine. Serotonin syndrome: an SSRI or MAOI combined with another serotonergic drug (tramadol, linezolid) → synaptic 5-HT accumulates to excess → 5-HT2A is overactivated → autonomic hyperactivity + neuromuscular overexcitation → myoclonus, hyperreflexia, tremor, fast onset over hours; the antidote is cyproheptadine, an antiserotonergic agent. Trap: writing rigidity as serotonin syndrome, or myoclonus as NMS (exactly reversed).

Rigidity + ↓reflexes + slow onset = NMS; myoclonus + hyperreflexia + fast onset = serotonin syndrome.
★ Must-know
Substances and Psychiatric Medications
  • Intoxication and withdrawal run in opposite directions; depressant withdrawal can be fatal (alcohol/BZD).
  • Alcohol withdrawal timeline = tremor (6–8h) → hallucinosis (12–24h) → seizure (24–48h) → DT (48–72h); BZD is first-line, thiamine before glucose.
  • Blackout = anterograde amnesia, with long-term memory preserved.
  • Amphetamine-induced psychosis = stop the drug + haloperidol; do not use carbamazepine.
  • Ketamine = NMDA antagonism; opioid intoxication = pinpoint pupils + respiratory depression, reversed with naloxone.
  • Delirium: first-line is short-acting oral haloperidol + find the underlying cause; withdrawal delirium: first-line is a BZD.
  • Diazepam IM has erratic absorption and is unsuitable for acute intramuscular use.
  • Lithium/VPA/CBZ: check serum levels; clozapine: check the white cell count.
  • SSRIs do not cause a rapid rise in blood glucose; discontinuation syndrome is least likely with fluoxetine.
  • EPS: treat akathisia with propranolol, do not increase the dose; tardive dyskinesia = VMAT2 inhibitor, worsened by anticholinergics.
  • NMS = rigidity + ↓reflexes + slow onset → dantrolene/bromocriptine; serotonin syndrome = myoclonus + hyperreflexia + fast onset → cyproheptadine.
  • Traps: giving haloperidol for withdrawal delirium, writing SSRIs as causing a blood glucose spike, increasing the dose for akathisia, giving an anticholinergic for TD, and swapping rigidity and myoclonus to the wrong side.
Full text · 1 table
Distinguishing featureNMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)Serotonin syndrome
Causative drugAntipsychotics (dopamine blockade), abrupt L-dopa withdrawalSerotonergic drugs (SSRI, SNRI, MAOI, tramadol, linezolid, etc., in combination)
OnsetSlow (days)Fast (hours)
Neuromuscular findingsLead-pipe rigidity, ↓reflexesHyperreflexia, myoclonus (especially the lower limbs), tremor
Shared featuresFever, autonomic instability, altered consciousness, ↑CKFever, autonomic instability, altered consciousness
Specific antidotedantrolene, bromocriptinecyproheptadine

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Management common to both is to stop the offending drug, cool the patient, provide supportive care, and give fluids; the difference lies in the antidote. The key distinguishing question is "are the muscles rigid or shaking?" — rigid is NMS, shaking is serotonin syndrome.

Other high-yield points on drug safety: the antidote for BZD overdose is flumazenil, but in a chronic user, flumazenil can precipitate withdrawal seizures; TCA overdose causes fatal cardiotoxicity (QRS widening), treated with sodium bicarbonate, which is why patients with depression at suicide risk should not be given large quantities of TCAs; MAOIs combined with tyramine or sympathomimetics cause a hypertensive crisis, and combined with serotonergic drugs cause serotonin syndrome.

♪ Memory hook

Intoxication and withdrawal run exactly opposite — the brake releases and only the gas is left, so there are seizures; the gas pedal jams, and that is myoclonus. Tell whether it is rigid or shaking, and the antidote follows.

Read-aloud version (copy the whole thing into any TTS)

Two beds in the emergency department: in one, a fifty-five-year-old man with alcohol use disorder, three days into abstinence, suddenly trembling, seeing nonexistent insects crawling up the wall, heart rate at one hundred forty, blood pressure one hundred eighty; in the other, a twenty-three-year-old woman taking a serotonin reuptake inhibitor who added the painkiller tramadol on her own, and two hours ago began shaking all over, with myoclonus, a temperature of forty degrees Celsius, and hyperreflexia. Both patients are febrile, agitated, and racing on autonomic overdrive, but in one the brakes have failed and in the other the gas pedal is stuck — and the drugs required are entirely different.

Almost every substance-use question can be cracked with a single principle: the symptoms of intoxication and withdrawal run in opposite directions. With chronic use, a depressant keeps the brakes pressed and the brain enlarges its own gas pedal to compensate; once the drug stops, the brake releases and only a fully open gas pedal is left, so withdrawal brings over-excitation, seizures, and an autonomic storm — this is the fundamental reason alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal can be fatal while stimulant withdrawal rarely is. The alcohol withdrawal timeline must be memorized: six to eight hours brings the earliest tremor plus autonomic hyperactivity, twelve to twenty-four hours brings alcoholic hallucinosis with a clear sensorium, twenty-four to forty-eight hours brings generalized withdrawal seizures, and forty-eight to seventy-two hours brings delirium tremens, which carries the highest mortality. The iron rule of treatment is that a benzodiazepine is first-line, because it shows cross-tolerance with alcohol, restores the brake, and prevents seizures and delirium tremens; phenobarbital has a narrow safety window and is not first-line. Vitamin B1 must always be given before glucose — giving glucose first depletes B1 and can precipitate the ophthalmoplegia-ataxia-confusion triad of Wernicke encephalopathy, and magnesium often needs replacing too. The essence of a blackout is inhibition of hippocampal NMDA receptors, so short-term memories cannot consolidate into long-term ones — it is anterograde transient amnesia, not retrograde, with long-term memory preserved and the person's outward behavior possibly looking normal at the time.

On the stimulant side, intoxication with amphetamine, methamphetamine, or cocaine brings agitation, paranoia, auditory hallucinations, and cardiovascular events, while withdrawal is the reverse — fatigue, hypersomnia, depression; management of the acute psychosis is to stop the drug plus give the short-acting antipsychotic haloperidol, and carbamazepine is not used because it has no established indication for amphetamine-induced psychosis. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that produces dissociative anesthesia, hallucinations, and memory impairment, and at low doses it has shown rapid onset of benefit in studies of treatment-resistant depression; opioids act through μ-receptor agonism, and the intoxication triad is pinpoint pupils plus respiratory depression plus decreased consciousness, reversed with naloxone, with withdrawal being miserable but rarely fatal. Caffeine withdrawal appears twelve to twenty-four hours after stopping, is dominated by headache plus fatigue, and includes no hallucinations or delusions — describing it as appearing after a week, or as including hallucinations, is always wrong.

The logic of formulation in psychiatric drugs likewise follows the mechanism: acute management needs fast onset, titratability, and monitorability, so the choice is a short-acting drug well absorbed orally or intramuscularly; a long-acting depot injection has a slow onset and cannot be titrated, so it is for maintenance treatment, not acute care. Diazepam is highly lipophilic, so its intramuscular absorption is erratic with poor bioavailability, which is why lorazepam IM, not diazepam IM, is chosen for acute intramuscular injection. Delirium in general has short-acting oral haloperidol as first-line, plus finding the underlying cause, but alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal delirium is the exception — a benzodiazepine, not haloperidol, is first-line, because the brake needs restoring to prevent seizures. Three safety warnings: olanzapine IM must not be combined with a parenteral benzodiazepine, since there have been reports of fatal cardiorespiratory depression; haloperidol, especially given intravenously, prolongs the QT interval; and droperidol carries a black-box warning for QT prolongation.

Which drugs need monitoring also should not be reversed: lithium, valproate, and carbamazepine are monitored by checking the serum level, because their therapeutic window is narrow and the risk of toxicity is high; clozapine is monitored by checking the white cell count or absolute neutrophil count, because of the fear of agranulocytosis, not by checking its serum level. The long-term side effects of lithium include nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, weight gain, tremor, and teratogenicity in the form of Ebstein anomaly; the precipitants of toxicity are all things that cause lithium retention — dehydration, NSAIDs, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, a low-sodium diet — and severe toxicity is cleared by hemodialysis. The side effects of serotonin reuptake inhibitors include nausea, sexual dysfunction, insomnia or hypersomnia, weight change, a bleeding tendency, early agitation, hyponatremia in the elderly, and discontinuation syndrome, but a rapid rise in blood glucose is not one of its side effects — that is a reverse trap; discontinuation syndrome is most common with the short-half-life paroxetine and least likely with the long-half-life fluoxetine.

The four types of extrapyramidal symptoms are not arranged at random — onset timing is the axis of management. Acute dystonia appears within hours to days as oculogyric crisis, torticollis, and laryngospasm, treated with the anticholinergic benztropine or diphenhydramine for fast relief; akathisia appears days to weeks later as subjective restlessness and pacing, most easily misjudged as agitation and treated by increasing the dose, which only makes it worse — the correct approach is to reduce the dose or add propranolol; parkinsonism appears weeks to months later as rigidity, resting tremor, and bradykinesia, treated with an anticholinergic or dose reduction; tardive dyskinesia appears months to years later as involuntary orofacial movements that are often irreversible, managed by stopping or switching to an atypical agent and using the VMAT2 inhibitor valbenazine — note that anticholinergics instead worsen it, since those belong to acute dystonia, so do not confuse the two.

Last is the differentiation of those two emergency-department beds. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by dopamine blockade from antipsychotics: dopamine plunges off a cliff, disabling hypothalamic thermoregulation and producing striatal rigidity, so onset is slow, over days, and the hallmark is lead-pipe rigidity plus decreased reflexes plus elevated CK; the specific antidote is dantrolene to relax the muscles, plus bromocriptine to replenish dopamine. Serotonin syndrome is caused by combining serotonergic drugs — an SSRI, an SNRI, an MAOI, tramadol, linezolid, and the like — so that synaptic 5-HT surges to excess, producing autonomic hyperactivity and neuromuscular overexcitation; onset is therefore fast, over hours, and the hallmark is myoclonus plus hyperreflexia plus tremor, especially in the lower limbs, with cyproheptadine, an antiserotonergic agent, as the specific antidote. Management common to both is to stop the drug, cool the patient, provide supportive care, and give fluids; the difference lies in the antidote. The key distinguishing question is really whether the muscles are rigid or shaking — rigid is neuroleptic malignant syndrome, shaking is serotonin syndrome.

🧪 Practice on this topic: 57 questions Taiwan board past papers · in Chinese, with explanations
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★ High-yield points & traps from past exams (1 section)
Substance Use Disorders 37 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Timeline of alcohol withdrawalTremor (6–8h) → hallucinosis (12–24h) → seizures (24–48h) → delirium tremens, DT (48–72h)Reversing the order; putting DT first
Drug of choice for alcohol withdrawalBZD (lorazepam)Choosing phenobarbital by mistake
Preventing Wernicke encephalopathyThiamine first, then glucoseGiving glucose first and precipitating encephalopathy
Alcoholic blackoutAnterograde amnesia; long-term memory preservedCalling it retrograde/loss of long-term memory
Direction of stimulant effectsIntoxication = stimulation; withdrawal = fatigue and depressionTreating amphetamine as a sedative
Treatment of amphetamine psychosisStop the drug + haloperidolUsing carbamazepine by mistake
Mechanism of ketamineNMDA antagonistAnswering agonist
Triad of opioid intoxicationPinpoint pupils + respiratory depression + coma; reversed by naloxoneConfusing it with stimulants
Caffeine withdrawalStarts at 12–24h; headache + fatigueRecording "appears after one week" or "causes auditory hallucinations"
Medication for chronic insomniaFirst choice is CBT-I; avoid short-acting potent BZDsPrescribing triazolam straight away

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05

The Borderlands of the Mind: Somatic Symptoms, Dissociation, Personality, and Ethics

~5 min · 42 past questions

Factitious disorder is about the role of being a patient for its own sake; malingering is about the benefits that come with the patient role. Deliberately feigning illness with no external benefit is factitious disorder, not malingering.

Full text
Case

Four patients lie side by side on the ward. A 30-year-old woman has "glove-and-stocking" numbness and reduced muscle strength, and every finding on neurological exam fails to match any actual nerve distribution. A 22-year-old woman has a body mass index of 14, a heart rate of 38, a temperature of 35°C, and no period for six months. A 28-year-old woman repeatedly self-harms, one moment idolizing the head nurse and the next calling her garbage, chronically empty inside. In the next bed, a terminally ill patient, fully lucid, insists on refusing dialysis, while the family wants him forced to continue. Four stories — conversion disorder, anorexia nervosa, borderline personality disorder (BPD), and end-of-life ethics, respectively — and this chapter is devoted entirely to these "borderlands of the mind."

The Somatic Symptom Group: Two Axes, One Clean Cut

⟶ Mechanism

What this group of disorders shares is somatic discomfort plus excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors about the symptoms; the differences lie in whether the symptom is deliberately produced by the patient, and what the deception is for. One major DSM-5 change to remember: somatic symptom disorder (SSD) no longer requires that symptoms be "medically unexplained" — even when the patient genuinely has an organic disease (real coronary artery disease, say), SSD can still be diagnosed as long as the thoughts, anxiety, or behaviors regarding the symptoms are excessive and disproportionate. Defining SSD as "no cause found on workup" is outdated DSM-IV thinking.

Full text · 1 table

Two axes cut cleanly through this group of disorders:

Is the symptom deliberately produced?Is there a tangible external benefit?Diagnosis
No (produced unconsciously)—Conversion disorder / SSD
Yes (deliberate)No (solely to occupy the "sick" role)Factitious disorder
Yes (deliberate)Yes (evading duty, insurance fraud, seeking drugs)Malingering = not a mental disorder

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Conversion Disorder: A Neurological Exam That "Doesn't Fit" Is the Answer

Full text

The core of conversion disorder (also called functional neurological symptom disorder, FND, in DSM-5) is that psychological stress is "converted" into a neurological symptom, yet examination findings are internally inconsistent with neuroanatomy — a "glove-and-stocking" sensory deficit that matches no actual nerve distribution is the classic example. The most common symptom is limb weakness/paralysis, followed by gait abnormalities and psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES); PNES can coexist with true epilepsy, so the presence of these episodes cannot be used to rule out true epilepsy.

Two clues that support the diagnosis are often flipped into mistaken grounds for "ruling it out": improvement in response to suggestion, hypnosis, or lorazepam supports the diagnosis of conversion disorder — it cannot be used to "rule it out just because a drug worked"; la belle indifférence (indifference toward a serious symptom) can be seen in conversion disorder but is neither specific nor required.

Questions on therapeutic attitude are a favorite: build trust, acknowledge that the symptom is genuinely real, provide psychotherapy (CBT) + rehabilitation, and address the underlying stressor. The cardinal sin is telling the patient outright, "this is all in your imagination" — it destroys the therapeutic relationship and accomplishes nothing, because to the patient, the symptom of conversion disorder is real and not deliberately produced.

BDD, Dissociation, and Confabulation

⚠ Trap
✗🦦This conversion disorder patient's symptoms improved after lorazepam — so it must not actually be conversion disorder, right?
✓🐻‍❄️Exactly the opposite. Responding to suggestion or lorazepam is a clue that "supports" conversion disorder, not grounds for ruling it out. Also remember: la belle indifférence is not specific, so it cannot confirm the diagnosis on its own; and never tell the patient outright "it's all in your imagination" — that destroys the relationship.
Full text

Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) involves a distorted, fixed, negative belief about some flaw in one's appearance that others barely notice, and it belongs to the obsessive-compulsive-related disorder spectrum. First-line treatment is SSRI + CBT; cosmetic surgery/procedures are ineffective and can even be harmful — fixing one perceived flaw simply shifts the attention to the next one, and the demands only multiply, never diminish.

The core of dissociative disorders is that the continuity of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception is "disconnected," most often related to trauma. DSM-5 has downgraded dissociative fugue to a "with fugue" specifier under dissociative amnesia; dissociative identity disorder (DID) consists of ≥2 distinct personality states alternating with amnesia; a person with depersonalization/derealization feels that they themselves, or the world, is unreal, but reality testing remains intact (they know it is only a "feeling" of unreality).

Confabulation is not dissociation — it is a memory disorder: without any intent to deceive, the patient fills gaps in memory with fabricated content, classically seen in Korsakoff syndrome (thiamine/B1 deficiency, commonly from chronic alcohol use); it belongs to the domain of memory, not language, emotion, thought, or dissociation.

Psychiatric complications after organ transplantation: the high-risk conditions are adjustment disorder, major depression, PTSD (especially ICU-related), and delirium; delusional disorder is the least likely — when the exam asks "which is least likely to appear after transplantation," choose delusional disorder.

Eating Disorders: The Key Dividing Line Between AN and BN

⟶ Mechanism

The core of every eating disorder is that "self-evaluation is held hostage by body shape/weight." AN is defined by "being underweight"; bulimia nervosa (BN) is defined by "compensatory behavior combined with self-evaluation unduly influenced by body weight." Two major DSM-5 changes to remember: AN has removed "amenorrhea" as a required diagnostic criterion (amenorrhea is a consequence, not a threshold), and it no longer mandates a fixed BMI cutoff, instead requiring "significantly low body weight" relative to what the person needs. Anyone who has reached significantly low body weight is still diagnosed with AN (binge-eating/purging type) even with binge eating/purging present — not BN.

Full text · 1 table
ItemAN (anorexia nervosa)BN (bulimia nervosa)
WeightSignificantly lowUsually normal or overweight
Core featureRestricted energy intake, intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body imageRecurrent binge eating + compensatory behavior (vomiting/laxatives/excessive exercise)
Self-evaluationUnduly influenced by body shape/weightUnduly influenced by body shape/weight (explicit in DSM-5)
Frequency/duration—≥1 time/week, ≥3 months
MortalityAmong the highest in psychiatryLower
Drug of choiceNo specific drug (nutrition/psychotherapy are the mainstay); bupropion contraindicatedFluoxetine 60 mg/day (the only FDA-approved agent); bupropion contraindicated

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Every physiologic complication of AN is a compensation for "chronic malnutrition + low body fat": hypothermia (↓body fat, ↓metabolic rate), bradycardia and hypotension (↑vagal tone), amenorrhea (↓hypothalamic GnRH → hypogonadotropic hypoestrogenism), osteoporosis (low estrogen + malnutrition), lanugo (a compensatory attempt to conserve heat), and vomiting/laxatives → hypokalemia plus metabolic alkalosis (loss of gastric acid and potassium). One direction worth spelling out explicitly: what vomiting causes is hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

Indications for hospitalization: weight roughly <70–75% of ideal body weight, severe arrhythmia/electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalemia/hypophosphatemia), unstable vital signs (heart rate <40, hypotension/hypothermia), acute food refusal, or suicide risk. The admitting department is chosen according to the complications — psychiatry or internal medicine/pediatrics — not automatically pediatrics. Refeeding syndrome results from rapid refeeding → insulin surges → hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia → arrhythmia/heart failure, so calories should be increased slowly, with phosphate repletion.

Weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial — reverting behavior/eating habits, psychological factors, changes in the microbiome, anatomical compensation; replacing B12/iron only addresses the nutritional deficiencies of postoperative malabsorption and has nothing to do with preventing weight regain — this is a reverse trap.

Personality Disorders: A Is Weird, B Is Wild, C Is Worried

Full text · 1 table
ClusterMnemonicRepresentative disorders
Cluster A: odd/eccentricWeirdParanoid, schizoid, schizotypal
Cluster B: dramatic/emotionalWildAntisocial, borderline (BPD), histrionic, narcissistic
Cluster C: anxiousWorriedAvoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive (OCPD)

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The picture of borderline personality disorder (BPD) is extreme emotional instability, chronic emptiness, an intense fear of abandonment, recurrent self-harm/suicidal threats, brief dissociation/quasi-psychotic symptoms under stress, and interpersonal relationships that swing between idealization and devaluation. First-line treatment is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) — the psychotherapy with the strongest evidence base; psychotherapy plus medication has a synergistic effect; benzodiazepines are ineffective for BPD's core symptoms and carry a risk of dependence/disinhibition. The exam loves to mistake BPD for "dependent personality disorder," or to make a benzodiazepine the mainstay of treatment — both should be crossed out.

Defense Mechanisms and Impulse Control

Full text · 1 table
MechanismDefinitionExample
FantasyDrawing comfort from imagined relationshipsAn imaginary friend
DissociationLoss of identity coherence after intense stressSuddenly not knowing who one is
Isolation of affectDescribing an emotional event in detail while severing the emotionRecounting the details of a car crash in a flat tone
ProjectionAttributing one's own unacceptable motives to othersAccusing the doctor of incompetence to escape one's own responsibility
Reaction formationMasking an impulse with the opposite behaviorBeing excessively attentive to someone one despises
Sublimation (mature)Redirecting an impulse into a socially acceptable channelAggression → boxing

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Kleptomania is at its core an impulsive impulse-control disorder: rising tension before the theft, a sense of relief after the act, and the stolen items are usually not needed and the person could afford to buy them. The difference from ordinary theft lies in "planning and motive" — ordinary theft is planned and for the value of the object; kleptomania is unplanned and not for the object's value. If a question states that "kleptomania is planned and carefully premeditated," that is a reverse trap.

Gender dysphoria in children: diagnostic criterion A1 requires a strong desire to be of another gender; both children and adolescents/adults require symptoms to persist for ≥6 months (not adults only); a disorder of sex development (DSD) does not need to be excluded — it can be noted as a specifier; the APA explicitly opposes conversion/reparative therapy, favoring affirmative care instead.

Ethics: Weighing the Four Principles

⟶ Mechanism

Most ethics questions are, at their core, a conflict between the four principles — autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. First identify which two principles are in conflict, then weigh them according to the situation. For a patient with decision-making capacity, autonomy usually wins out (unless a third party is endangered).

⚠ Trap
✗🦦This terminally ill patient is fully lucid but refuses dialysis — shouldn't we petition the court or let the family decide for him? Otherwise he'll die.
✓🐻‍❄️Neither is right. For a patient with decision-making capacity + adequate disclosure + voluntariness, autonomy wins out, and his refusal should be respected — no court or surrogate is needed. If the exam offers "force continuation," "go to court," or "let the family decide," all are wrong. And remember: in the case of HIV nondisclosure to a pregnant partner, confidentiality can be broken to protect the third party, but "the physician can only remind the patient" is insufficient.
★ Must-know
Somatic Symptoms, Dissociation, Personality, Eating Disorders, and Ethics
  • SSD no longer requires "medically unexplained"; the DSM-5 focus is on an excessive response.
  • Two axes: deliberate × external benefit — not deliberate = conversion disorder; deliberate + no benefit = factitious disorder; deliberate + benefit = malingering (not a mental disorder).
  • Most common in conversion disorder = limb weakness/paralysis; response to suggestion/lorazepam = supports the diagnosis; la belle indifférence is not specific; never say "it's imagined."
  • BDD = SSRI + CBT; cosmetic surgery is ineffective and harmful.
  • DID = ≥2 personality states + amnesia; depersonalization has reality testing that stays intact; confabulation = a memory disorder (Korsakoff/B1 deficiency), not dissociation.
  • After transplantation, the least likely diagnosis = delusional disorder.
  • AN = significantly low body weight; DSM-5 has removed amenorrhea as a criterion; a person at low body weight is still AN (binge-eating/purging type) even with binge eating/purging.
  • AN complications: hypothermia, bradycardia, amenorrhea, osteoporosis, lanugo; vomiting → hypokalemia (not hyperkalemia); hospitalize below 70% of ideal body weight (current SAHM 2022: below 75% of median BMI); refeeding syndrome = hypophosphatemia/hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia; weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial, and B12/iron cannot prevent it.
  • BN: binge eating + compensation + self-evaluation influenced by weight; first-line fluoxetine 60 mg; bupropion is contraindicated in both AN and BN (seizure risk).
  • BPD first-line is DBT; benzodiazepines are ineffective and carry a risk of dependence.
  • Kleptomania = impulsive, unplanned, not for the object's value; gender dysphoria criterion A1 = desire to be the other gender, children too require ≥6 months, conversion therapy is opposed.
  • Ethics: autonomy wins out for a patient with capacity; confidentiality is not absolute (may be broken to protect a third party); active vs. passive euthanasia is divided by "administering death" vs. "withdrawing support"; withdrawing and withholding are equivalent; genetic testing is risk assessment, not prediction; organ donation must never deceive the family.
  • Traps: writing SSD as "requiring no cause found," calling conversion disorder "imagined," requiring amenorrhea for AN, hyperkalemia from vomiting, using benzodiazepines for BPD, forcing a terminal patient onto dialysis, deceiving a family to encourage donation.
Full text · 1 table
PrincipleCore ideaApplication
AutonomyRespecting the patient's own decisionInformed consent, refusal of treatment, confidentiality
BeneficenceActing in the patient's best interestProviding beneficial treatment
Non-maleficenceDo no harmAvoiding futile/harmful interventions
JusticeFair distributionOrgan allocation, health insurance

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The three requirements for a valid autonomous decision are: decision-making capacity + adequate disclosure + voluntariness. So the terminally ill patient in the next bed, with normal consciousness and cognition, who repeatedly and consistently refuses dialysis — the principle of autonomy dictates that his decision should be respected, with no need for a court or legal representative to intervene. Situations in which informed consent may be waived or modified include: an emergency (presumed consent), lack of decision-making capacity (a surrogate decides), the patient voluntarily waiving disclosure (documented), and therapeutic privilege (a high bar, not to be abused).

The duty of confidentiality is not absolute — it may be broken when there is serious, imminent harm to an identifiable third party (drawing on the spirit of Tarasoff). A classic exam question: a patient with HIV refuses to inform a sexual partner, and the partner is already pregnant → the physician may disclose to protect the third party. First urging the patient to disclose voluntarily is the reasonable first step; if the patient still refuses, the physician may then disclose — that is the most appropriate approach. "Only reminding the patient to disclose" falls short, while "fully releasing the patient's personal information" violates the principle of proportionality.

The classification of euthanasia turns on whether the physician "actively did something that caused death" or "stopped providing life support": active euthanasia (actively administering a lethal means) is illegal in most jurisdictions; passive euthanasia (withdrawing/withholding life support) is more widely accepted; physician-assisted suicide (PAS) sits between the two; the doctrine of double effect (giving a sufficient dose of morphine to relieve suffering, where hastening death is foreseen but not intended) is ethically acceptable. Withdrawing and withholding treatment are ethically and legally equivalent — removing a ventilator from a patient with capacity, at that patient's own wish, is lawful and falls under patient autonomy; it is not equivalent to killing. Misclassifying "actively assisting death" as passive euthanasia is the most inappropriate description.

Genetic testing mostly provides only a probability of disease risk, not an accurate prediction; organ donation must respect the donor's wishes plus honest disclosure — the family must never be deceived; having a 12-year-old minor sister donate a kidney raises child-protection ethics concerns and is not permitted.

♪ Memory hook

Don't rush to name the diagnosis — cut it first along two axes: deliberate or unconscious, an external benefit or none, and whose brain, which circuit, has been disconnected.

Read-aloud version (copy the whole thing into any TTS)

Four patients lie side by side on the ward: a thirty-year-old woman with glove-and-stocking numbness and reduced muscle strength that fails to match any nerve distribution on every test; a twenty-two-year-old woman with a body mass index of fourteen, a heart rate of thirty-eight, a temperature of thirty-five degrees, and no period for six months; a twenty-eight-year-old woman who repeatedly self-harms, one moment treating the head nurse as a god and the next as garbage, chronically empty inside; and in the next bed, a terminally ill patient, fully lucid, insisting on refusing dialysis, while the family wants him forced to continue. Conversion disorder, anorexia nervosa, borderline personality disorder, and end-of-life ethics — this chapter is devoted entirely to these borderlands of the mind.

What the somatic symptom group shares is somatic discomfort plus excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors about the symptoms. There is one major DSM-5 change to remember: somatic symptom disorder no longer requires that symptoms be medically unexplained — even when the patient genuinely has coronary artery disease, the diagnosis can still be made as long as the response to the symptoms is excessive and disproportionate; defining it as no cause found on workup is outdated older thinking. To cut cleanly through this group, use two axes: whether the symptom is deliberately produced, and whether there is a tangible external benefit. Not deliberate is conversion disorder or somatic symptom disorder, where the patient's suffering is genuine; deliberate but only to occupy the patient role is factitious disorder; deliberate with an external benefit, such as evading duty or insurance fraud, is malingering, which is not a mental disorder. The core of conversion disorder is that psychological stress is converted into a neurological functional symptom, yet the findings are internally inconsistent with neuroanatomy — glove-and-stocking numbness is the classic example; the most common symptom is limb weakness or paralysis, followed by gait abnormality and psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, which can coexist with true epilepsy, so the episodes cannot be used to rule out true epilepsy. Responding to suggestion, hypnosis, or lorazepam supports the diagnosis rather than being grounds for ruling it out, and this direction accounts for the bulk of the reverse traps; indifference toward a serious symptom can be seen in conversion disorder but is neither specific nor required. The therapeutic attitude is to build trust, acknowledge that the symptom is genuinely real, provide cognitive behavioral therapy plus rehabilitation, and address the underlying stressor; the cardinal sin is telling the patient outright that this is something they have imagined, which destroys the relationship and accomplishes nothing, because to the patient the symptom is real and not deliberately produced.

Body dysmorphic disorder belongs to the obsessive-compulsive-related disorder spectrum, with first-line treatment being a serotonin reuptake inhibitor plus cognitive behavioral therapy; cosmetic surgery and procedures are ineffective and can even be harmful — fixing one flaw simply shifts the attention to the next, and the demands only grow, never shrink. Dissociative disorders involve a disconnection in the continuity of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception, most often related to trauma; DSM-5 has downgraded dissociative fugue to a "with fugue" specifier under dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder consists of two or more personalities alternating with amnesia, and a person with depersonalization feels that they themselves or the world is unreal, yet reality testing remains intact. Confabulation is not dissociation but a manifestation of a memory disorder — the patient fills gaps with fabricated content without any intent to deceive, classically seen in Korsakoff syndrome, that is, B1 deficiency most often seen in chronic alcohol use; do not confuse this classification. The psychiatric complication least likely after organ transplantation is delusional disorder, while the high-risk conditions are adjustment disorder, major depression, posttraumatic stress disorder — especially ICU-related — and delirium.

The core of every eating disorder is that self-evaluation is held hostage by body shape and weight. Anorexia is defined by significantly low body weight, bulimia by compensatory behavior combined with self-evaluation unduly influenced by weight; there are two important DSM-5 changes to remember — anorexia has removed amenorrhea as a required diagnostic criterion, and it no longer mandates a fixed BMI cutoff, replacing it with significantly low body weight relative to what the person needs; a person who has reached significantly low body weight is still diagnosed with the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia even with binge eating or purging present, not with bulimia. The physiologic complications of anorexia are all compensations for chronic malnutrition plus low body fat: low body fat and a falling metabolic rate cause hypothermia, rising vagal tone causes bradycardia and hypotension, falling hypothalamic GnRH causes the hypogonadotropic hypoestrogenism behind amenorrhea, low estrogen plus malnutrition causes osteoporosis, the skin grows lanugo to conserve heat, and vomiting or laxatives cause hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis — it is hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Indications for hospitalization are a weight roughly below seventy percent of ideal body weight, severe arrhythmia or electrolyte abnormality, unstable vital signs, or acute food refusal with suicide risk, with admission chosen according to the complications — psychiatry or internal medicine/pediatrics — rather than automatically pediatrics. Refeeding syndrome follows rapid refeeding, when a surge of insulin drives phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into cells and causes arrhythmia and heart failure, so calories must be increased slowly with phosphate repletion. Weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial, and replacing B12 and iron only addresses the nutritional deficiencies of postoperative malabsorption — it cannot prevent weight regain. First-line treatment for bulimia is fluoxetine at sixty milligrams a day, higher than the antidepressant dose; bupropion is contraindicated in both anorexia and bulimia because of seizure risk.

Personality disorders divide into three clusters: Cluster A, odd/eccentric — Weird — includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, dramatic/emotional — Wild — includes antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; Cluster C, anxious — Worried — includes avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. The picture of borderline personality disorder is extreme emotional instability, chronic emptiness, an intense fear of abandonment, recurrent self-harm and suicidal threats, brief dissociation or quasi-psychotic symptoms under stress, and interpersonal relationships swinging between idealization and devaluation. First-line treatment is dialectical behavior therapy, the psychotherapy with the strongest evidence base; psychotherapy plus medication has a synergistic effect; benzodiazepines are ineffective for the core symptoms and carry a risk of dependence and disinhibition, so they cannot be the mainstay. The exam loves to mistake borderline for dependent personality disorder, or to make a benzodiazepine the first choice — both should be crossed out. Questions defining the defense mechanisms love to dig pits: fantasy is drawing comfort from imagined relationships, dissociation is a loss of identity coherence after intense stress, isolation of affect is describing an event in detail while severing the emotion, recounted in a flat tone, projection is attributing one's own unacceptable motives to others to escape responsibility, reaction formation is masking an impulse with the opposite behavior, and sublimation, redirecting an impulse into a socially acceptable channel, is the representative mature mechanism. Kleptomania is at its core impulsive: tension rises before the theft, relief follows the act, and the stolen items are usually not needed and the person could afford to buy them; the difference from ordinary theft lies in planning and motive — ordinary theft is planned and for the value of the object — so saying kleptomania is carefully premeditated is a reverse trap. The A1 criterion for gender dysphoria in children is a strong desire to be of another gender; children, adolescents, and adults alike require symptoms to persist for at least six months, not adults only; a disorder of sex development does not need to be excluded and can be noted as a specifier; the APA explicitly opposes conversion or reparative therapy and calls for affirmative care instead.

Last is ethics. The four principles are autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice; most ethics questions are at their core a conflict between two of these principles — locate the conflict first, then weigh it. For a patient with decision-making capacity, the principle of autonomy usually wins out, unless a third party is endangered. The three requirements for a valid autonomous decision are capacity plus adequate disclosure plus voluntariness; the terminally ill patient with normal consciousness and cognition who repeatedly and consistently refuses dialysis should, under the principle of autonomy, have his decision respected, with no need for a court or legal representative to intervene — this is a gift question, yet also one of the most commonly missed. Situations in which informed consent may be waived or modified are: presumed consent in an emergency, a surrogate deciding by the patient's best interest when capacity is absent, the patient voluntarily waiving disclosure with documentation, and the rare case of therapeutic privilege, whose bar is very high and must not be abused. The duty of confidentiality is not absolute and may be broken when there is serious, imminent harm to an identifiable third party, drawing on the spirit of the Tarasoff duty to protect; in the scenario of a patient with HIV who refuses to inform a sexual partner and the partner is already pregnant, first urging the patient to disclose voluntarily is the reasonable first step, and if the patient still refuses, the physician may then disclose — that is the most appropriate approach; merely reminding the patient to disclose falls short, and fully releasing the patient's personal information violates the principle of proportionality. The classification of euthanasia turns on whether the physician actively did something that caused death or simply stopped providing life support: active euthanasia, actively administering a lethal means, is illegal in most jurisdictions; passive euthanasia, withdrawing or withholding life support, is more widely accepted; physician-assisted suicide sits between the two; the doctrine of double effect, giving a sufficient dose of morphine to relieve suffering where hastening death is foreseen but not intended, is ethically acceptable; withdrawing and withholding are ethically and legally equivalent, and misclassifying actively assisting death as passive euthanasia is the most inappropriate description. Genetic testing is mostly a risk assessment rather than an accurate prediction; organ donation must respect the donor's wishes plus honest disclosure, the family must never be deceived, and having a twelve-year-old minor sister donate a kidney raises child-protection ethics concerns and is not permitted.

🧪 Practice on this topic: 45 questions Taiwan board past papers · in Chinese, with explanations
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★ High-yield points & traps from past exams (3 sections)
Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders 15 questions
  • DSM-5 change for SSD: "medically unexplained" is no longer required; the focus is an excessive response to the symptoms; it can be diagnosed even when real organic disease is present.
  • Two-axis approach: intentionally feigned? external gain? → not intentional = conversion disorder; intentional + no gain = factitious disorder; intentional + gain (avoiding military service/insurance fraud) = malingering (not a mental disorder).
  • Most common symptom of conversion disorder = limb weakness/paralysis; pseudoseizures can coexist with true epilepsy.
  • In conversion disorder, a response to suggestion/lorazepam supports the diagnosis and cannot be used to exclude it; la belle indifférence is nonspecific.
  • Treatment of conversion disorder: build trust, CBT, rehabilitation; never tell the patient directly "you're imagining it".
  • In BDD, cosmetic surgery/aesthetic procedures are ineffective or even harmful; treatment is SSRI + CBT.
  • Confabulation = a memory disorder (Korsakoff / B1 deficiency), not dissociation or deception.
  • DID is ≥2 personality states + amnesia; in depersonalization, reality testing remains intact.
  • After organ transplantation, delusional disorder is least likely; high-risk conditions are PTSD / depression / adjustment disorder.

Common traps:

  • Using "responds to medication/suggestion" as a reason to exclude conversion disorder (quite the opposite: it supports it).
  • Treating "most common" as "most specific" (e.g., la belle indifférence is often mentioned but is nonspecific).
  • Choosing malingering whenever you see "deliberately faking", ignoring whether there is external gain — no gain means factitious disorder.
  • Recommending cosmetic surgery to a BDD patient, or directly denying the reality of a conversion patient's symptoms.
Medical Ethics and Patient Autonomy 6 questions
  • For ethics questions, first identify the two principles in conflict; when the patient has decision-making capacity, autonomy usually takes priority.
  • Full legal capacity + consistent refusal of treatment = must be respected, with no need for a court or legal representative to intervene.
  • Three requirements for a valid autonomous decision: capacity + adequate disclosure + voluntariness; exceptions to informed consent: emergency, incapacity (surrogate decides), patient waiver, therapeutic privilege.
  • Withdrawing and withholding life support are ethically equivalent; removing a ventilator at the wish of a patient with capacity is passive and lawful.
  • Confidentiality is not absolute: serious, imminent harm to a third party (e.g., HIV not disclosed to a pregnant partner) → confidentiality may be breached to disclose; "only reminding the patient" is an insufficient response; disclosure must follow the principle of proportionality.
  • Active euthanasia = actively administering a lethal means; passive = withdrawing life support; causing death through "assistive measures" counts as active.
  • Double effect (morphine for pain relief, where hastened death is foreseeable but not intended) is ethically acceptable.
  • Genetic testing is mostly risk assessment, not an accurate prediction of disease onset.
  • Organ donation: respect the donor's wishes + disclose honestly; never deceive the family; donation by minors involves child protection.

Common traps:

  • Forcing treatment on a patient with capacity in order to "save a life", or going around the patient to a court/surrogate.
  • Treating confidentiality as an absolute duty and ignoring the exception to protect third parties; or, conversely, over-disclosing in violation of proportionality.
  • Misclassifying "actively assisting death" as passive euthanasia.
  • Securing organ donation by deceiving the family, or exaggerating genetic testing as "accurate prediction".
Eating and Personality Disorders 8 questions
  • AN = significantly low body weight, hypothermia/bradycardia/hypotension/amenorrhea/lanugo; vomiting/laxatives → hypokalemia; DSM-5 removed "amenorrhea" as a required criterion, and a patient at significantly low weight is still diagnosed with AN (binge-eating/purging type) even with bingeing/purging.
  • Gender dysphoria in children also requires a duration of ≥6 months (not only in adults).
  • AN admission criterion: below 70% of ideal body weight (current SAHM 2022: below 75% of median BMI); admit to psychiatry or internal medicine/pediatrics according to complications, not always pediatrics; beware of refeeding syndrome (hypophosphatemia).
  • BN: binge eating + compensatory behavior + self-evaluation unduly influenced by weight (DSM-5); first choice fluoxetine; bupropion is contraindicated in both BN and AN.
  • Weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial; supplementing B12/iron cannot prevent it.
  • First choice for BPD is DBT; psychotherapy + medication are additive; BZDs are ineffective in BPD and carry a risk of dependence.
  • Defense mechanism definitions: be able to match fantasy/dissociation/isolation of affect/projection correctly.
  • Kleptomania = impulsive, unplanned, not for the value of the item; planned theft is criminal behavior.
  • For children, gender dysphoria criterion A1 = a strong desire to be of the other gender; intersex conditions need not be excluded; conversion therapy is opposed.

Common traps:

  • Recording bulimia as "self-evaluation not influenced by weight" (contradicts DSM-5).
  • Thinking vomiting causes hyperkalemia (it actually causes hypokalemia).
  • Mistaking BPD for dependent personality disorder, or using BZDs as the mainstay.
  • Describing kleptomania as "carefully planned", or recommending conversion therapy for gender dysphoria.
★ Final review: every must-know in this subject (7 sets)
01 · The Two Ends of Life: The Child's Brain and the Aging Brain
★ Must-know
ADHD
  • Three locks: before age 12 + ≥2 settings + functional impairment; DSM-IV's "before age 7" is an outdated trap.
  • First line = central stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine); alternatives = atomoxetine, α2 agonists.
  • Stimulants can transiently affect growth/appetite/sleep; most patients with comorbid tics can still use them — not an absolute contraindication.
  • Traps: distractors built on "only at school," "only counts before age 7," and "comorbid tics absolutely forbid stimulants."
01 · The Two Ends of Life: The Child's Brain and the Aging Brain
★ Must-know
Tourette / ASD / Conduct
  • Tourette = dopamine overactivity → D2 antagonists improve it, agonists worsen it; inheritance is often tested as "autosomal dominant, incomplete penetrance" (modern view: polygenic).
  • ASD: ABA/speech therapy/CBT are evidence-based; sensory integration has no evidence for core symptoms — the most common trap.
  • Conduct disorder can be diagnosed past age 18 but only if ASPD criteria are not met (the two are not diagnosed together); the diagnosis does not automatically change.
  • Traps: treating sensory integration as an effective core therapy; restricting conduct disorder to under-18s.
01 · The Two Ends of Life: The Child's Brain and the Aging Brain
★ Must-know
Aging and Dementia
  • Normal aging: DA/ACh/NE/5-HT all decline; "NE rises" is a trap.
  • Prevalence of late-life depression is about 15%; arthritis is the most common cause of disability; persecutory delusions dominate late-onset delusional disorder.
  • Late-life psychosis: usually responds to low-dose antipsychotics, but stay alert for EPS/falls.
  • FTD early = the person changed (behavior/social skills/language); AD early = the facts are forgotten (memory).
  • Traps: writing NE as "rising"; describing FTD's social cognition as "relatively preserved"; equating disability with dementia.
02 · The Dopamine Storm: Schizophrenia and Psychosis
★ Must-know
Schizophrenia
  • Positive symptoms respond well to medication; negative symptoms are the long-term core and the source of disability.
  • Bleuler's 4 A's: Associations / Autism (subjectivity) / Affect / Ambivalence; "objectivity" is the reverse trap.
  • Most common hallucination = auditory (command hallucinations are the most dangerous); olfactory hallucinations should raise suspicion for an organic cause/temporal lobe epilepsy.
  • Diagnostic timeline ≥6 months; schizophreniform 1–6 months; brief psychotic disorder <1 month.
  • haloperidol = first-generation; treat akathisia with propranolol.
  • Clozapine is the only agent effective for treatment-resistant disease and the only one that lowers suicide risk; monitor CBC regularly (agranulocytosis).
  • Prevalence about 1%, roughly equal between sexes; suicide mortality traditionally 10%, newer data about 5%.
  • Involuntary hospitalization must follow Mental Health Act procedures; not a single physician's call.
  • Traps: olfactory hallucinations, "objectivity," "6 months" rewritten as "1 year," haloperidol misclassified as second-generation, "women twice as often," a 25–50% suicide rate, involuntary hospitalization by one physician.
03 · The Rise and Fall of Monoamines and the Amygdala's Alarm: Mood and Anxiety
★ Must-know
Mood and Anxiety
  • Depression monoamines: NE from the locus coeruleus, 5-HT from the raphe nuclei; antidepressants inhibit reuptake.
  • PET in depression shows decreased anterior (left DLPFC) metabolism; REM latency shortens (not increases).
  • Bipolar disorder's first episode can be depressive; pregnancy mnemonic: lithium → heart, valproate (VPA)/carbamazepine → spine; valproate is most to be avoided, while lamotrigine is relatively the safest.
  • PMS/PMDD occur in the luteal phase → do not include hot flashes; PMDD does not include delusions.
  • Suicide: psychosis is a high-risk factor, not protective.
  • ASD and PTSD are divided by the one-month mark; ASD must include dissociation.
  • GAD: ≥6 months, ≥3 somatic symptoms, about 60% become chronic.
  • First line: SSRI/SNRI + CBT; OCD needs high doses + ERP; PTSD uses prazosin for nightmares, benzodiazepines are not recommended.
  • OCD is roughly equal between sexes, with earlier onset in men; IBS is the most common anxiety comorbidity.
  • Traps: antidepressants "enhancing" reuptake, REM latency increasing, bipolar disorder always starting with mania, PMDD including delusions, ASD excluding dissociation, using benzodiazepines in PTSD.
04 · Slamming the Brakes and Flooring the Gas: Substances, Emergencies, and Psychiatric Medications
★ Must-know
Substances and Psychiatric Medications
  • Intoxication and withdrawal run in opposite directions; depressant withdrawal can be fatal (alcohol/BZD).
  • Alcohol withdrawal timeline = tremor (6–8h) → hallucinosis (12–24h) → seizure (24–48h) → DT (48–72h); BZD is first-line, thiamine before glucose.
  • Blackout = anterograde amnesia, with long-term memory preserved.
  • Amphetamine-induced psychosis = stop the drug + haloperidol; do not use carbamazepine.
  • Ketamine = NMDA antagonism; opioid intoxication = pinpoint pupils + respiratory depression, reversed with naloxone.
  • Delirium: first-line is short-acting oral haloperidol + find the underlying cause; withdrawal delirium: first-line is a BZD.
  • Diazepam IM has erratic absorption and is unsuitable for acute intramuscular use.
  • Lithium/VPA/CBZ: check serum levels; clozapine: check the white cell count.
  • SSRIs do not cause a rapid rise in blood glucose; discontinuation syndrome is least likely with fluoxetine.
  • EPS: treat akathisia with propranolol, do not increase the dose; tardive dyskinesia = VMAT2 inhibitor, worsened by anticholinergics.
  • NMS = rigidity + ↓reflexes + slow onset → dantrolene/bromocriptine; serotonin syndrome = myoclonus + hyperreflexia + fast onset → cyproheptadine.
  • Traps: giving haloperidol for withdrawal delirium, writing SSRIs as causing a blood glucose spike, increasing the dose for akathisia, giving an anticholinergic for TD, and swapping rigidity and myoclonus to the wrong side.
05 · The Borderlands of the Mind: Somatic Symptoms, Dissociation, Personality, and Ethics
★ Must-know
Somatic Symptoms, Dissociation, Personality, Eating Disorders, and Ethics
  • SSD no longer requires "medically unexplained"; the DSM-5 focus is on an excessive response.
  • Two axes: deliberate × external benefit — not deliberate = conversion disorder; deliberate + no benefit = factitious disorder; deliberate + benefit = malingering (not a mental disorder).
  • Most common in conversion disorder = limb weakness/paralysis; response to suggestion/lorazepam = supports the diagnosis; la belle indifférence is not specific; never say "it's imagined."
  • BDD = SSRI + CBT; cosmetic surgery is ineffective and harmful.
  • DID = ≥2 personality states + amnesia; depersonalization has reality testing that stays intact; confabulation = a memory disorder (Korsakoff/B1 deficiency), not dissociation.
  • After transplantation, the least likely diagnosis = delusional disorder.
  • AN = significantly low body weight; DSM-5 has removed amenorrhea as a criterion; a person at low body weight is still AN (binge-eating/purging type) even with binge eating/purging.
  • AN complications: hypothermia, bradycardia, amenorrhea, osteoporosis, lanugo; vomiting → hypokalemia (not hyperkalemia); hospitalize below 70% of ideal body weight (current SAHM 2022: below 75% of median BMI); refeeding syndrome = hypophosphatemia/hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia; weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial, and B12/iron cannot prevent it.
  • BN: binge eating + compensation + self-evaluation influenced by weight; first-line fluoxetine 60 mg; bupropion is contraindicated in both AN and BN (seizure risk).
  • BPD first-line is DBT; benzodiazepines are ineffective and carry a risk of dependence.
  • Kleptomania = impulsive, unplanned, not for the object's value; gender dysphoria criterion A1 = desire to be the other gender, children too require ≥6 months, conversion therapy is opposed.
  • Ethics: autonomy wins out for a patient with capacity; confidentiality is not absolute (may be broken to protect a third party); active vs. passive euthanasia is divided by "administering death" vs. "withdrawing support"; withdrawing and withholding are equivalent; genetic testing is risk assessment, not prediction; organ donation must never deceive the family.
  • Traps: writing SSD as "requiring no cause found," calling conversion disorder "imagined," requiring amenorrhea for AN, hyperkalemia from vomiting, using benzodiazepines for BPD, forcing a terminal patient onto dialysis, deceiving a family to encourage donation.
★ High-yield points & traps: 9 exam sections (from the question book)
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Age criterion for ADHDBefore age 12, requires ≥2 settings"Before age 7", "one setting"
Medication for TouretteD2 antagonists (haloperidol/risperidone) are effectiveChoosing a dopamine agonist; thinking it always resolves on its own
Inheritance of TouretteHighly heritable; traditional answer "autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance" (modern view: polygenic)Writing "recessive"
NE in normal agingDecreasesWriting "increases"
Treatment of ASDABA/speech therapy is effective; sensory integration has no evidence for core symptomsTreating sensory integration as an effective core therapy
Conduct disorderCan be diagnosed at age 18 or older; only if ASPD criteria are not met (the two are not diagnosed together)"Only <18 years"; "automatically becomes ASPD after 18"
Medication for late-life psychosisLow-dose antipsychotics are usually effective"Poor response"
Early FTDSocial cognition/behavior impaired early; memory relatively preservedSaying social cognition is "relatively preserved"

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Answering strategy: the distractors here are mostly "outdated criteria" (ADHD age 7) or "reversed statements" (NE increases with aging, social function preserved in FTD, Tourette recessive). For numeric/direction questions, recite the correct direction in your head before checking the options.

Schizophrenia 24 questions
Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Bleuler 4AAssociations / Autism / Affect / AmbivalenceMissing items or getting them wrong
Autistic thinkingEmphasizes subjectivityWriting "objectivity"
Most common hallucinationAuditory hallucinations (command type most typical)Choosing olfactory hallucinations (actually a clue to organic disease/temporal lobe epilepsy)
Duration for diagnosis≥6 months"1 year"
haloperidolFirst generationMistaking it for second generation
Lifetime suicide mortalityTraditionally about 10%; revised by newer data to about 5%25–50% (grossly exaggerated)
Prevalence by sexSimilar (about 1%)"Twice as common in women"
Negative symptomsLong-term core feature, poor drug response, poor prognosisThinking hallucinations/delusions are the core
akathisiaTreat with propranolol—
Involuntary admissionMust follow the procedures of the Mental Health Act"One physician is enough"

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Answering strategy: for statement questions, first apply the three tables "positive/negative", "first/second generation", and "good/poor prognosis"; for numeric questions, lock onto the three high-frequency numbers 6 months, 1%, 10–13%.

Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Monoamines in depressionNE/5-HT/DA are all involvedRemembering only one; mixing up their nuclei of origin
Mechanism of antidepressantsInhibit monoamine reuptakeWriting "enhance reuptake"
PET in depressionAnterior (left) metabolism ↓Writing increased; or applying the direction seen in mania
REM latencyShortened in depressionWriting "increased"
First episode of bipolar disorderCan be a depressive episode"Must be mania"
Teratogenicity of lithiumEbstein anomalyRecording it as neural tube defects
valproate/carbamazepineNeural tube defects; valproate is the one most to avoid in pregnancyRecording them as cardiac malformations
lamotrigine in pregnancyRelatively the safest (the oral cleft signal carries a very small absolute risk)Thinking it is more dangerous than valproate
PMSDoes not include hot flashesSlipping in menopausal hot flashes
PMDDDoes not include delusionsListing delusions as a symptom
SuicidePsychosis is high riskTreating it as a protective factor

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Answering strategy: for mechanism questions, guard the "direction" (metabolism↓, shortened REM latency, reuptake inhibition); for drug questions, use the mnemonic "lithium → heart, valproate/carbamazepine → spine, lamotrigine → lip"; for diagnostic-boundary questions, rule out quickly with "luteal phase → no hot flashes; delusions belong to another diagnosis".

Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Does ASD (acute stress disorder) include dissociative symptoms?Yes (amnesia/derealization/depersonalization)Any statement saying "no dissociation" is wrong
ASD vs PTSD cutoff1 month (under = ASD, beyond = PTSD)Distinguishing them by symptom type instead of time
Duration for GAD≥6 months + ≥3 physical symptomsRecording 1 month
Peak onset/course of GADYoung (20s–30s), about 60% become chronicInferring "peak at 50–65 years" or "mild cases resolve quickly"
Anxiety disorder that most often brings patients to the EDPanic disorder (acute physical symptoms + sense of impending death)Choosing GAD by mistake
First-line drugs for anxiety disordersSSRI/SNRI (+ CBT)Choosing antipsychotics/long-term BZDs by mistake
Treatment of OCDSSRI (high dose) + ERP; clomipramine can be addedGiving only BZDs
Drugs to avoid in PTSDBZDs not recommended; prazosin for nightmaresTreating BZDs as the first choice for PTSD
Medical illness most often comorbid with anxietyFunctional GI disorders/IBSChoosing peptic ulcer by mistake
Sex distribution of OCDSimilar in men and women; earlier onset in malesRecording "female > male"

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Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
Timeline of alcohol withdrawalTremor (6–8h) → hallucinosis (12–24h) → seizures (24–48h) → delirium tremens, DT (48–72h)Reversing the order; putting DT first
Drug of choice for alcohol withdrawalBZD (lorazepam)Choosing phenobarbital by mistake
Preventing Wernicke encephalopathyThiamine first, then glucoseGiving glucose first and precipitating encephalopathy
Alcoholic blackoutAnterograde amnesia; long-term memory preservedCalling it retrograde/loss of long-term memory
Direction of stimulant effectsIntoxication = stimulation; withdrawal = fatigue and depressionTreating amphetamine as a sedative
Treatment of amphetamine psychosisStop the drug + haloperidolUsing carbamazepine by mistake
Mechanism of ketamineNMDA antagonistAnswering agonist
Triad of opioid intoxicationPinpoint pupils + respiratory depression + coma; reversed by naloxoneConfusing it with stimulants
Caffeine withdrawalStarts at 12–24h; headache + fatigueRecording "appears after one week" or "causes auditory hallucinations"
Medication for chronic insomniaFirst choice is CBT-I; avoid short-acting potent BZDsPrescribing triazolam straight away

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Exam pointCorrect answerCommon trap
First choice for treating deliriumLow-dose short-acting oral antipsychotic (haloperidol); find the cause firstChoosing a long-acting depot injection by mistake
Alcohol/BZD withdrawal deliriumBZD is the first choiceUsing haloperidol by mistake
Least suitable IM drug for acute agitationDiazepam IM (erratic absorption)Thinking all BZDs can be given IM; haloperidol/lorazepam actually can
Drug requiring WBC monitoringClozapine (agranulocytosis)Thinking blood levels must be monitored
Drugs requiring blood level monitoringLithium / VPA / carbamazepineIncluding clozapine in level monitoring
SSRI side effectsNausea, sexual dysfunction, insomnia, hyponatremia, etc.; not a rapid rise in blood glucoseTreating a glucose spike as an SSRI side effect
Indications for lithiumAcute mania + bipolar prophylaxis + anti-suicide effectUsing it for panic disorder/anorexia/alcoholism
Precipitants of lithium toxicityDehydration, NSAIDs, thiazides, ACEIs; dialysis if severeThinking diuretics are irrelevant
Rigidity + slow onset + CK↑NMS → dantrolene/bromocriptineConfusing it with serotonin syndrome
Myoclonus + hyperreflexia + rapid onsetSerotonin syndrome → cyproheptadineMistaking it for NMS
Restless and unable to sit still — add more drug?akathisia; reduce the dose/use a β-blockerMistaking it for agitation and adding more antipsychotic
Chronic involuntary movements of the mouth and tongueTardive dyskinesia; anticholinergics worsen itUsing anticholinergics (those treat acute dystonia)

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  • DSM-5 change for SSD: "medically unexplained" is no longer required; the focus is an excessive response to the symptoms; it can be diagnosed even when real organic disease is present.
  • Two-axis approach: intentionally feigned? external gain? → not intentional = conversion disorder; intentional + no gain = factitious disorder; intentional + gain (avoiding military service/insurance fraud) = malingering (not a mental disorder).
  • Most common symptom of conversion disorder = limb weakness/paralysis; pseudoseizures can coexist with true epilepsy.
  • In conversion disorder, a response to suggestion/lorazepam supports the diagnosis and cannot be used to exclude it; la belle indifférence is nonspecific.
  • Treatment of conversion disorder: build trust, CBT, rehabilitation; never tell the patient directly "you're imagining it".
  • In BDD, cosmetic surgery/aesthetic procedures are ineffective or even harmful; treatment is SSRI + CBT.
  • Confabulation = a memory disorder (Korsakoff / B1 deficiency), not dissociation or deception.
  • DID is ≥2 personality states + amnesia; in depersonalization, reality testing remains intact.
  • After organ transplantation, delusional disorder is least likely; high-risk conditions are PTSD / depression / adjustment disorder.

Common traps:

  • Using "responds to medication/suggestion" as a reason to exclude conversion disorder (quite the opposite: it supports it).
  • Treating "most common" as "most specific" (e.g., la belle indifférence is often mentioned but is nonspecific).
  • Choosing malingering whenever you see "deliberately faking", ignoring whether there is external gain — no gain means factitious disorder.
  • Recommending cosmetic surgery to a BDD patient, or directly denying the reality of a conversion patient's symptoms.
  • For ethics questions, first identify the two principles in conflict; when the patient has decision-making capacity, autonomy usually takes priority.
  • Full legal capacity + consistent refusal of treatment = must be respected, with no need for a court or legal representative to intervene.
  • Three requirements for a valid autonomous decision: capacity + adequate disclosure + voluntariness; exceptions to informed consent: emergency, incapacity (surrogate decides), patient waiver, therapeutic privilege.
  • Withdrawing and withholding life support are ethically equivalent; removing a ventilator at the wish of a patient with capacity is passive and lawful.
  • Confidentiality is not absolute: serious, imminent harm to a third party (e.g., HIV not disclosed to a pregnant partner) → confidentiality may be breached to disclose; "only reminding the patient" is an insufficient response; disclosure must follow the principle of proportionality.
  • Active euthanasia = actively administering a lethal means; passive = withdrawing life support; causing death through "assistive measures" counts as active.
  • Double effect (morphine for pain relief, where hastened death is foreseeable but not intended) is ethically acceptable.
  • Genetic testing is mostly risk assessment, not an accurate prediction of disease onset.
  • Organ donation: respect the donor's wishes + disclose honestly; never deceive the family; donation by minors involves child protection.

Common traps:

  • Forcing treatment on a patient with capacity in order to "save a life", or going around the patient to a court/surrogate.
  • Treating confidentiality as an absolute duty and ignoring the exception to protect third parties; or, conversely, over-disclosing in violation of proportionality.
  • Misclassifying "actively assisting death" as passive euthanasia.
  • Securing organ donation by deceiving the family, or exaggerating genetic testing as "accurate prediction".
  • AN = significantly low body weight, hypothermia/bradycardia/hypotension/amenorrhea/lanugo; vomiting/laxatives → hypokalemia; DSM-5 removed "amenorrhea" as a required criterion, and a patient at significantly low weight is still diagnosed with AN (binge-eating/purging type) even with bingeing/purging.
  • Gender dysphoria in children also requires a duration of ≥6 months (not only in adults).
  • AN admission criterion: below 70% of ideal body weight (current SAHM 2022: below 75% of median BMI); admit to psychiatry or internal medicine/pediatrics according to complications, not always pediatrics; beware of refeeding syndrome (hypophosphatemia).
  • BN: binge eating + compensatory behavior + self-evaluation unduly influenced by weight (DSM-5); first choice fluoxetine; bupropion is contraindicated in both BN and AN.
  • Weight regain after bariatric surgery is multifactorial; supplementing B12/iron cannot prevent it.
  • First choice for BPD is DBT; psychotherapy + medication are additive; BZDs are ineffective in BPD and carry a risk of dependence.
  • Defense mechanism definitions: be able to match fantasy/dissociation/isolation of affect/projection correctly.
  • Kleptomania = impulsive, unplanned, not for the value of the item; planned theft is criminal behavior.
  • For children, gender dysphoria criterion A1 = a strong desire to be of the other gender; intersex conditions need not be excluded; conversion therapy is opposed.

Common traps:

  • Recording bulimia as "self-evaluation not influenced by weight" (contradicts DSM-5).
  • Thinking vomiting causes hyperkalemia (it actually causes hypokalemia).
  • Mistaking BPD for dependent personality disorder, or using BZDs as the mainstay.
  • Describing kleptomania as "carefully planned", or recommending conversion therapy for gender dysphoria.